I'm just going to pick on a few of things you've said in this quote, and the rest in a further posting when I have time.
R.J. Furuli wrote:It is true that Jesus is called ks. But in the two quotations from Isaiah in Romans 9:28 (Isaiah 10:23) and 9: 29 (Isaiah 1:9), the reference of ks is clearly to yhwh. In Romans 10:16 (Is 53:1) and 11:3 (1 Kings 19:14) ks again refers to yhwh. In Romans 11:34 there is no quation, but the context shows that ks refers to God. Because yhwh is referred to as ks both before and after Romans 10:13, the most likely conclusion is that ks in Romans 10:13 refers to the same individual that Joel referred to, namely to yhwh. To claim that the reference is to another individual than Joel referred to is more like metaphysics than like basic linguistics and philology.
Quick question: In Romans 10:9 and 10:12, is κυριος in reference to YHWH or Jesus?
My answer is clearly Jesus, and not YHWH.
So yes, a different context can indeed change the referent of the same word, regardless of usage before or after.
I mean the entire context from Romans 10:5-13 is how does one become saved, and Jesus is referred to as both 'Christ' and 'Jesus' and also 'Lord'. Romans 10:9 also makes it quite clear as to what the referent of Romans 10:13 is:because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
This coincides very nicely with the quote of Joel 2:32 in Romans 10:13 (exact same verb σωζω used in both, and emphasis on speech), and the pronouns αὐτῷ in v11, and αὐτόν in v12 also refer to Jesus, so with the language of Romans 10:9 & 12 mirroring that of Romans 10:13 (σωζω, επικαλεω), I don't think it's in any doubt in Romans 10:13 that the usage of κυριος is indeed a reference to Jesus. Paul has evidenced the difference between Jesus and YHWH in Romans 10:5-13, by using θεος instead for YHWH, rather than κυριος which is used for Jesus.
There's also the interesting understanding that could be argued for Romans 10:9:
ὅτι ἐὰν ὁμολογήσῃς ἐν τῷ στόματί σου κ̅ν̅ ι̅η̅ν̅ χ̅ρ̅ν̅ καὶ πιστεύσῃς ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου ὅτι ὁ θεὸς αὐτὸν ἤγειρεν ἐκ νεκρῶν, σωθήσῃ·because if you may confess with your mouth that Jesus Christ is YHWH, and trust in your heart that God raised Him out of the dead, you shall be saved.
(Translation of P46)
A bit of a stretch, but not one that is too far for what someone reading Romans 10:9 could've understood Paul as saying (especially as, you seem to have argued, the references to κυριος from Romans 9:28 onwards are references to YHWH).
This also applies to Acts 2:21 - this is a different context from Romans 10:13, and the emphasis is on the outpouring of the Spirit, rather than salvation.
Just because Acts has Peter using Joel 2:32 one way, doesn't mean that Paul is using it the same way in Romans 10:13.
So, I return to my main point. By using ks both in reference to yhwh and to Jesus, utter confusion is the result. I do not think that those who wrote the NT books wanted to confuse their readers. If the personal name of God was used, as well as kurios in references to Jesus, the texts would be clear and understandable.
I don't think 'utter' confusion is the result. It does however coincide with what I said regarding the conflation of Jesus and YHWH somewhat