Might the "plural of majesty" actually indicating androgyny?

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Moses Gummadi
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Re: Might the "plural of majesty" actually indicating androgyny?

Post by Moses Gummadi »

Ruminator wrote: Mon Feb 10, 2020 3:14 pm Might the "plural of majesty" actually indicating androgyny? By that I mean, might singular names of gods that are plural in form actually indicate that the god had a male and a female personality?
Job 33:4 רֽוּחַ־אֵל עָשָׂתְנִי וְנִשְׁמַת שַׁדַּי תְּחַיֵּֽנִי.
KJV: The Spirit of God hath made me, and the breath of the Almighty hath given me life.

The verbs עָשָׂתְ and תְּחַיֵּ are in the feminine.

Genesis 1:2 וְרוּחַ אֱלֹהִים מְרַחֶפֶת עַל־פְּנֵי הַמָּֽיִם
KJV: And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.

The verb מְרַחֶפֶת is in the feminine, therefore רוּחַ is feminine here.

Genesis 2:7 וַיִּיצֶר יְהוָה אֱלֹהִים אֶת־הָֽאָדָם
KJV: And the LORD God formed man

The verb יִּיצֶר is in the masculine.

So there is יְהוָה אֱלֹהִים and רוּחַ אֱלֹהִים in masculine and feminine genders respectively.

Genesis 1:26 וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים נַֽעֲשֶׂה אָדָם בְּצַלְמֵנוּ כִּדְמוּתֵנוּ
KJV: And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness

As we all know the verb נַעֲשֶׂה is plural, as also the suffixes in בְּצַלְמֵנוּ and כִּדְמוּתֵנוּ. That the conversation happened between יְהוָה אֱלֹהִים and רוּחַ אֱלֹהִים is hinted in Genesis 1:27.

Genesis 1:27 זָכָר וּנְקֵבָה בָּרָא אֹתָֽם
KJV: male and female created He them

So how do we explain singular verbs used for אֱלֹהִים?

Genesis 1:1 בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים
KJV: In the beginning God created

We know the verb בָּרָא is singular. Before Adam became two (אִישׁ and אִשָּׁה), he was one. But the two did not remain two, but became one flesh (בָשָׂר אֶחָֽד). When they had a son, Eve exclaimed, קָנִיתִי אִישׁ אֶת־יְהוָֽה. But her expectation was proven to be wrong, for Cain turned out to be wicked. Nevertheless, I guess this story gives us the template to understand divine mysteries.

Proverbs 30:4 מַה־שְּׁמוֹ וּמַֽה־שֶּׁם־בְּנוֹ
KJV: What is His name, and what is His Son's name?

Edit - PS: I just saw your Quora post. Ba'al is not a reference YHVH. Even if some ancient Israelites had conflated both, it was unacceptable, as it doesn't affirm the oneness of God (Deut 6:4) and is considered blasphemy (נָקַב). See my post (question) at viewtopic.php?f=15&p=32317#p32317
Moses Gummadi
יִרְאֵי יְהוָה בִּטְחוּ בַיהוָה
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