The verb in question is not “to bore” rather “to furnish as in to provide”.SteveMiller wrote:I thought Adam Clarke's explanation was good (http://www.sacred-texts.com/bib/cmt/clarke/psa040.htm).
What is wrong with Clarke's?
Looking at the context, it’s possible to see that “ears” was meant in that the verses preceding and following are about hearing and speaking. “You provide ears for me” so that when I speak, people hear.
“Body” — is this a case where we misunderstand the translator’s intent? While at the time of Homer, it meant only a dead body, centuries later it seems to have been used even figuratively rather than referring only to a physical body. I’m not a Greek expert, so I rely on the following:SteveMiller wrote:These are the kind of errors we see in the MT when compared to DSS: a word for word match, but some rare misspellings of words. I do not know Greek, so I can't follow Ken's argument. A discussion of this on b-greek is here http://lists.ibiblio.org/pipermail/b-gr ... 27504.html
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... %3Dsw%3Dma
So could the Greek more accurately be translated “You prepared somebody for me”?
In other words, was the LXX here an interpretation rather than a direct translation, and the people of the time recognized what was meant (while we today don’t)?
Karl W. Randolph.