B-Hebrew: The Biblical Hebrew Forum

Dear friends,

I'm wondering if חֲמַת אָדָם in Psa 76,11 speaks of the wrath of God on mankind or the wrath of man (Gen. subj. or object.)? The Targum implies that it's the wrath of God on man. That means who is exercising the wrath: God or man?
Do you have any ideas ?
Yours
Peter, Germany

כִּֽי־חֲמַ֣ת אָדָ֣ם תּוֹדֶ֑ךָּ שְׁאֵרִ֖ית חֵמֹ֣ת תַּחְגֹּֽר׃

It's a question worth looking into further. I just wanted to add the Hebrew of the whole verse in question for other people who read the posts here. Perhaps someone will come up with a good response. I would like to think more on it.

I'm not a moderator or anything, but there is a policy on the site that you need to use your full name. You should read the policy and make sure to conform to it, since it's how the site functions.

Yours,
Jason

It has to be the wrath OF man, not the wrath ON man. Every usage of חֵמֹ֣ת followed by a noun is the wrath OF, not ON, excluding those referring to the place Hamath.