Kenneth Greifer wrote:If words can have more than one meaning,
Words don’t have more than one meaning. By “word” the proper term is “lexeme” which also includes where more than one word are always used together to make a unique meaning that each word on its own doesn’t have. I call those “complex lexemes”. Then one also needs to watch out for homonyms, which are two or more lexemes that have the same pronunciation and often the same spelling, but are not the same lexeme.
A good example is “strike”—it is actually three homonyms, three lexemes—one with the idea of hitting, one with the idea of making a count, and a third dealing with labor relations. Then there are more than one complex lexemes that incorporate “strike” as one of their words, one of them being “strike out”. If we spoke German instead of English, “strike out” would have its own dictionary entry because it has a different meaning than either “strike” or “out”.
Lexemes have only one meaning each, but some can be used in many contexts, others in only few contexts.
Kenneth Greifer wrote: then you can't take the most common one and say it is always used the most common way. If that was true, words would be very limited.
If word meanings weren’t limited, then we couldn’t communicate. If every person made up his own meanings to the words he uses, then no one could understand what the other is saying. We are not like Humpty Dumpty in
Alice Through The Looking Glass, we need to take words, lexemes, as they are used in society, then use them the same way.
Kenneth Greifer wrote: Some people try to translate the Bible with computers using one word to translate each Hebrew word as if words had only one possible meaning.
This is confusing understanding a lexeme within a language, and translation. These are two different arts, and should be kept separate. Lexemes in one language often have different ranges of usages than similar words in another language, an example being “unter” in German has a range of usage that covers both “under” and “among” in English, therefore cannot be translated with only one word in English.
Kenneth Greifer wrote:In this case, the two words can mean more than 'because", plus this quote makes sense as "instead of who" because of what happened to Hezekiah.
Sorry, this is eisegesis, starting with a conclusion, then making everything fit that conclusion. This is “putting the cart before the horse”. This is just as wrong in lexicography as it is wrong in theology.
The complex lexeme תחת אשר is always used for one meaning in all its other uses in Tanakh, therefore it’s wrong to say it has a different meaning only here.
Kenneth Greifer wrote:There are more reasons to consider the possibility of Isaiah 53 being about Hezekiah. I don't want to start a religious debate. I just think all of Isaiah 53 is mistranslated and misunderstood by Judaism and Christianity, and also Bible scholarship. I am not picking a religious side. I am saying all of the religions are wrong about Isaiah 53. I think it is a tragedy because what it really says is not religiously controversial at all. Only the misunderstood version of Isaiah 53 is religiously controversial.
You have the right to your own opinions, but not to your own facts. I come to this chapter as a linguist, not a theologian. The linguistic facts of the chapter make it impossible to fit the history of King Hezekiah as recorded in Kings and Chronicles.
Kenneth Greifer wrote:…Kenneth Greifer
I didn’t answer all your claims in this response, because they would make this too long. Linguistically, this chapter is not complex. The controversy is in the implications of what the linguistics communicate. I won’t go into the theological fray here, but you take out of context, your mistranslations indicate that you don’t understand the Hebrew being used. In other words, you need to address the linguistics, before we get to the theological conclusions.
Karl W. Randolph.