B-Hebrew: The Biblical Hebrew Forum

Amos 9:12 is this:
I'm most interested in the second half of the verse. Here are some popular translations of Amos 9:12b...

ESV & NASB - and all the nations who are called by my name

NIV - and all the nations that bear my name

KJV - and of all the heathen, Which are called by my name

When looking at the Hebrew we've got the Nifal perfect 3ms on the qr' verb. It's significant that this is singular I think. Then we've got shemi - "my name" - a singular noun in construct with the 1p pronominal suffix. Then we've got a preposition in construct with a 3mp pronominal suffix. Elihem could designate something like "over them".

Shouldn't we take the qr' verb to be connect to shemi since the verb is 3ms? The english translations I've listen take it as connected to hagoyim which is plural.

Shouldn't we translate this verse to say: "and all the nations (who) over them my name is called" or "and all the nations who my name is called over"?

You're correct. In the Hebrew the subject of the verb נקרא is שמי.
Literally, on whom my name is called.

The issue really is getting the Hebrew into idiomatic English.

To say, and all the nations who My name is called upon them is a bit redundant in English; though I would prefer, as opposed to the English translations above, something like and all the nations upon whom My name is called

The LXX takes a somewhat literal/interpretative stance:
καὶ πάντα τὰ ἔθνη ἐφʼ οὓς ἐπικέκληται τὸ ὄνομά μου ἐπʼ αὐτούς, λέγει Κύριος ὁ ποιῶν ταῦτα.
'...and all the nations upon whom has been called My name upon them', says Yahweh, the One Who does these things.

Btw, welcome to the forum, ToL! Please note that forum rules do stipulate you need to have your name stated somewhere, either in your username or in your signature

Thanks for the replies. I'm glad to get this confirmation. The relevance, as I see it, would be as follows:

If it is rendered: "all the nations who are called by my name" then the text is talking about nations already called by the name of the Lord - namely Israel or possibly Israel and Judah.

But if it is rendered "all the nations over whom my name is called" then the text is talking about future nations over whom the name of the Lord will be called as if to claim them. This then could be understood as a reference to the future preaching of the gospel and it appears to be understood by James in this way at the Jerusalem Council when he quotes this verse (Acts 15)

- Billy Otten
Candidate for Ordination, PCA
Pursuing MABS through RTS

Tree of Life wrote:If it is rendered: "all the nations who are called by my name" then the text is talking about nations already called by the name of the Lord - namely Israel or possibly Israel and Judah.

I don’t see how you get this from the verse, seeing as “they will expropriate … all the nations which are called by my name …” Who are the “they” in ”they will expropriate” if not Israel? “Expropriate” has the idea of taking ownership of, making one’s own, which describes the New Testament understanding that those from the nations who believe in Jesus become part of Israel, adopted descendants of Abraham.

Therefore, I don’t see how you can make the distinction that “called by my name” refers only to the descendants of Jacob.

Remember also that translation ≠ to understanding within the language.

Tree of Life wrote:But if it is rendered "all the nations over whom my name is called" then the text is talking about future nations over whom the name of the Lord will be called as if to claim them. This then could be understood as a reference to the future preaching of the gospel and it appears to be understood by James in this way at the Jerusalem Council when he quotes this verse (Acts 15)

- Billy Otten
Candidate for Ordination, PCA
Pursuing MABS through RTS

Look at the context.

Either way of reading it gives the understanding of the New Testament. “Called by my name” gives better English.

I think you’re making a distinction that doesn’t exist in the language itself.

Karl W. Randolph.