You’re absolutely right. I didn’t actually read through the verse within its context. The veyiqtol is most frequently a type of jussive, but sometimes it is used as a yiqtol that simply has a conjunctive vav, as in this case.Chris Watts wrote: ↑Tue Sep 03, 2024 6:24 am For a second there I thought you were saying that it is a Jussive because I had written the shewa thus וְיִֽירְאוּ obviously it is not a jussive, but that is what I thought you had meant. For there is no speaker's desire nor any wish on the part of Isaiah or God, it is simply a future fact. Just trying to be clear that I understand it correctly.
These are the fourteen different translations (two different LXX versions) that I checked:Chris Watts wrote: ↑Tue Sep 03, 2024 6:24 am On the other issue of translation, I think there is a strong case to read this particular verse as both 'See' and 'Fear'. Apart from the three Manuscripts from between 950 and 1300 AD where without the masoretes grammar there is clearly the verb 'See', there is also the issue of the violence of the context and more importantly, where in scripture is it ever written: To Fear the Glory of God? His Glory can only be seen.
Chris watts
CJB — ¹⁹in the west they will fear the name of Adonai....
CSB — ¹⁹They will fear the name of the Lord in the west....
Darby — ¹⁹And they shall fear the name of Jehovah from the west....
ESV — ¹⁹So they shall fear the name of the Lord from the west....
Geneva — ¹⁹So shal they feare the Name of the Lord from the West....
JPS 1985 — ¹⁹From the west, they shall revere the name of the Lord....
KJV — ¹⁹So shall they fear the name of the Lord from the west....
LEB — ¹⁹So they shall fear the name of Yahweh from the west....
LXX (both Rahlfs & Göttingen) — ¹⁹καὶ φοβηθήσονται οἱ ἀπὸ δυσμῶν τὸ ὄνομα κυρίου....
NIV — ¹⁹From the west, men will fear the name of the Lord....
NRSV — ¹⁹So those in the west shall fear the name of the Lord....
YLT — ¹⁹And they fear from the west the name of Jehovah....
I wonder if there are other instances of יִֽירְאוּ being written with a single yod without meteg and clearly bearing the meaning “fear” in the manuscripts that you mentioned. For instance, does Micah 7.17, which reads וְיִֽרְאוּ in the WLC, have a meteg in the 1280 AD manuscript that you made mention of? How consistent is the manuscript in the use of meteg? Could it be that it still means “fear” and that we shouldn’t attempt to reinterpret the verse simply because of a missing meteg? After all, the Aleppo Codex reads וְיִֽֿרְ֯אוּ at this point, clearly meaning “fear” (see image below). You could also check that manuscript at Eccl 3.14, which also has only one yod in the WLC.