B-Hebrew: The Biblical Hebrew Forum

I have noticed that sometimes את is before זה "this" when it is used as a direct object of a verb, but not always.
It is used before zeh in Leviticus 11:9,11:21, and 1 Samuel 21:16, but not before zeh in Psalm 56:10, 75:8, 104:26, Proverbs 24:12, and Isaiah 29:12.
Is there any reason for this? Or is it just optional?

Leviticus 11:9 ויקרא
11:9אֶת־זֶה תֹּאכְלוּ מִכֹּל אֲשֶׁר בַּמָּיִם כֹּל אֲשֶׁר־לוֹ סְנַפִּיר וְקַשְׂקֶשֶׂת בַּמַּיִם בַּיַּמִּים וּבַנְּחָלִים אֹתָם תֹּאכֵלוּ׃

Psalms 75:8 תהלים
75:8כִּי־אֱלֹהִים שֹׁפֵט זֶה יַשְׁפִּיל וְזֶה יָרִים׃

Isaiah 29:12 ישעיה
29:12וְנִתַּן הַסֵּפֶר עַל אֲשֶׁר לֹא־יָדַע סֵפֶר לֵאמֹר קְרָא נָא־זֶה וְאָמַר לֹא יָדַעְתִּי סֵפֶר׃

Psalms 56:10 תהלים
56:10אָז יָשׁוּבוּ אוֹיְבַי אָחוֹר בְּיוֹם אֶקְרָא זֶה־יָדַעְתִּי כִּי־אֱלֹהִים לִי׃

Kenneth,
My Hebrew Grammar book says that et usually precedes definite direct objects in prose.
The examples you have with the et are all prose.
The examples you have without the et are all poetry.
Also, In Isa 29:12 there is no et before the definite direct object hasepher.
In Psalm 75:8 both zeh's seem to not be definite.

I have other questions about et, I will post as a new thread.