The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Classical Hebrew morphology and syntax, aspect, linguistics, discourse analysis, and related topics
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Leonard Jayawardena
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The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by Leonard Jayawardena »

In his article "The 'Brothers and Sisters of Jesus': Anything New?" François Rossier (Catholic priest and Marianist) writes:
This plurality of interpretations [i.e., "brothers" and "sisters" of Jesus mentioned in the NT as being either blood siblings or close relations, such as cousins] has been made possible because of the ambiguity of the word "brother" (and "sister") in ancient Hebrew. This language, like Aramaic, does not distinguish between blood brother and cousin. In fact--and this point might not have been taken into sufficient consideration--the Hebrew word ah, in its literal meaning, applies to any close male relative of the same generation. Once someone belongs to this circle--whether as sibling, half-brother, step-brother or cousin--he is an ah. Within this circle defined by true family brotherhood, no further word distinction is made. For ancient Hebrew, one belongs either to the family in-group or not.
Further down in the article he writes
Ancient Greek considers how the family members of a same generation may be related, and distinguishes between an adelphos, "brother," and an anepsios, "cousin." Since the New Testament was written in ancient Greek, the sponsors of the Helvidian interpretation argue that wherever the word "brother" is used it refers to a true sibling. They concede that if we can suppose an original Hebrew or Aramaic that preceded the Greek text, we may accept that the New Testament authors felt bound to translate the original Hebrew or Aramaic expression word-by-word into Greek. But when such an original text or fixed expression cannot be supposed, they continue, we need to acknowledge that the authors of the New Testament made the distinction between "brother" and "cousin," since they were writing in Greek.

The psychological and anthropological reality of speaking and writing in a language of another culture is, however, more complex. I was able to witness it when I was living in Abidjan, the major city of the Ivory Coast, in West Africa. It is today a big city of about four million inhabitants that grew up in a zone originally scarcely populated. The sparse original population was not able to absorb the waves of immigrants coming from all over the former French colonies in West Africa. The only language all these people had in common was French, and French became thus the native language of Abidjan. In most native languages of West Africa, no distinction is made between a "brother" and a "cousin," whereas such a distinction exists in French. Nevertheless, the inhabitants of Abidjan, whose mother tongue is French, who have been raised and educated in French, continue to use the French word for "brother" when they speak of a "cousin." Using the French word for "cousin" would betray the way they envision social and family relationships. When the people of Abidjan want to specify that "brother" means a true blood sibling, they need to add "same father, same mother" (même père, même mère). Full siblings are a particular kind of brothers; they do not constitute the benchmark of brotherhood. The socio-cultural milieu of the authors of the New Testament is Judaism. So, we can accept the idea that, even if their text does not suppose a Hebrew or Aramaic substrate, in their use of Greek words they would naturally convey the way their own Judaic society and culture envision social and family relationships.
The full article can be accessed at http://campus.udayton.edu/mary/Rossier.html

I think that while it is true that no further word distinction is made as between a blood brother and a close relation such as a cousin in Hebrew (and Aramaic), it doesn't mean that the ancient Hebrews and the Jews of the first century had no way of indicating such distinctions in speech and writing when using אָח.

Sometimes אָח is more specifically defined with other words, as in Judges 9:5, where we are told that Abimelech killed "his brothers the sons of Jerubbaal, seventy men" [אֶת־אֶחָ֧יו בְּנֵֽי־יְרֻבַּ֛עַל שִׁבְעִ֥ים] on one stone." The words "sons of Jerubbaal" and "seventy men" serve to distinguish his blood brothers from the "mother's brothers [אֶל־אֲחֵ֖י אִמֹּ֑ו ]," i.e., her relatives, mentioned in vv. 1-2, who are also Ahimelech "brothers" in the sense of "relatives." Sometimes the preceding context helps to determine the precise relationship denoted by אָח. For example, in Genesis 14:14, 16 Lot is called Abraham's אָח, but from Gen. 11:27 the reader already knows that the relationship is uncle-nephew. In 1 Samuel 16:13, "Then Samuel took the horn of oil and annointed him [David] in the midst of his brothers [אֶחָיו֒]," the writer meant and expected the reader to understand the other sons of Jesse he had mentioned in the preceding verses. In Joshua 2:13, 18 and 6:23, the mention of "brothers" and "sisters" of Rahab in close association with her "father" and "mother" is an indication that they are her own blood brothers and sisters. (I should think that this last example has implications for our understanding of such passages as Matthew 12:46-49; 13:54-57; Luke 8:19-21; Acts 1:14.)

What do others think?

Leonard Jayawardena
Isaac Fried
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by Isaac Fried »

It seems to me that אח is a variant of חי XA-IY, 'alive', a word ending in the personal pronoun היא -IY, 'he'.
Like AX, also אב AB, 'father', and אם EM, 'mother', are both single-consonant words.
The ending -N in בן BEN, 'son', and -T in בת BAT, 'daughter', are possibly but grammatical fractions.

Isaac Fried, Boston University
davew
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by davew »

I quite agree. The real question is, what usage is more common, and hence more likely? Because it "can" mean "cousin" or some such doesn't mean that we can make the term mean that for dogmatic reasons. As you noted, the context in the NT pretty well demand "sibling."

Analogy: "strike" can be used to mean "miss something," whether a baseball, the mark, or getting the lady's attention ("strike out"). Except in bowling: there it means "hit." Context is everything.
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kwrandolph
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by kwrandolph »

Leonard:

You are asking two questions here — 1) the use of a word in Hebrew and 2) the use of a translated word in koiné Greek.

You have pretty well described its use in Biblical Hebrew. There is no argument here.

However the story to which you refer is found in the New Testament, which was written in Greek, Not only that, but the two writers who specifically recorded the phrase “mother and brothers” were Mark, who had a Greek name so probably grew up in a Greek speaking family (Mark 3:32) and Luke, whose use of the Greek language is by far the most sophisticated of all the New Testament writers and who was living in what is now southern Turkey when first mentioned (Luke 8:20). That “mother and brothers” are mentioned together, that the writers were well versed in Greek language, that at least one of the writers grew up in a non-Semitic language milieu (unlike your example from Africa), all point to that these brothers were brothers of the same mother.

A final point, look at the person you quoted raising the question—he is a Roman Catholic theologian. The reason that has a bearing is because it is a teaching of the Roman Catholic religion that Mary was always a virgin, that Joseph never was a husband to her in the fullest sense of the word. Therefore, she never bore younger brothers to Jesus. The examples listed above contradict that teaching. Therefore Roman Catholic theologians need to raise the question that was the use in Greek according to Greek rules, or according to Hebrew rules that had come into Greek, as in that example in Africa?

Karl W. Randolph.
kwrandolph
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by kwrandolph »

davew wrote:Analogy: "strike" can be used to mean "miss something," whether a baseball, the mark, or getting the lady's attention ("strike out"). Except in bowling: there it means "hit." Context is everything.
“Strike” is a bad analogy here, as when one looks at its etymology as indicated by cognate languages and also its uses in English, that we’re dealing with at least two homonyms, and your example of “getting the lady’s attention” (strike out) is a complex lexeme that if this were German or Chinese would be listed separately not under the simple lexeme “strike”. Further, there’s the mixing of its uses as a verb and noun, which is the etymological fallacy. For these reasons, “strike” is a bad analogy here.

Karl W. Randolph.
davew
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by davew »

kwrandolph wrote:
davew wrote:Analogy: "strike" can be used to mean "miss something," whether a baseball, the mark, or getting the lady's attention ("strike out"). Except in bowling: there it means "hit." Context is everything.
“Strike” is a bad analogy here, as when one looks at its etymology as indicated by cognate languages and also its uses in English, that we’re dealing with at least two homonyms, and your example of “getting the lady’s attention” (strike out) is a complex lexeme that if this were German or Chinese would be listed separately not under the simple lexeme “strike”. Further, there’s the mixing of its uses as a verb and noun, which is the etymological fallacy. For these reasons, “strike” is a bad analogy here.

Karl W. Randolph.
I'm inclined to disagree, because especially in English, etymology has essentially no bearing on current word usage. "Strike out" is an idiom, yes, but it's not an isolated one. It's based on actual usage of the word in baseball, where "strike" means "to miss" and "strike out" just means "no more chances." So the use is legitimate, and I really don't think that it's legitimate to dismiss such examples based on etymology, because most of the people who use these terms couldn't even spell etymology, much less tell you what the significance of it might be.
Dave Washburn

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kwrandolph
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by kwrandolph »

davew wrote: I'm inclined to disagree, because especially in English, etymology has essentially no bearing on current word usage.
Dave: the etymological fallacy claims that because a word had a certain meaning in the past, that it necessarily has that meaning today. Notice, I nowhere make that claim.

However, part of the reason that “strike” has such a messy use is because it is both a noun and a verb (homonyms) and in each historically at least two homonym nouns and two homonym verbs. And now we have at least six centuries since they all became homonyms, making a real mess.
davew wrote: "Strike out" is an idiom, yes, but it's not an isolated one. It's based on actual usage of the word in baseball, where "strike" means "to miss" and "strike out" just means "no more chances."
Wrong. A foul ball is also a strike, where it was not a miss, just didn’t go in a fair direction.

One of the words that become one of the homonyms that make up the present “strike” meant a mark or count against someone. As such, in baseball, missing the ball when swinging, hitting a foul ball or not attempting to hit the ball when it crosses the plate in strike zone is a mark or count against the batter, hence a “strike”. The etymology fits.

As for complex lexemes, there are the examples of “to fish” and “to fish out” where the second has the meaning of harvesting all the fish in a pond. The second one is not an idiom, rather the two words together make up a meaning that is recognizably different than either word separately. In German those two terms are “fischen” and “ausfischen” and are listed separately in dictionaries. “To strike out” has no German equivalent, but like “to fish out” is a complex lexeme.
davew wrote: So the use is legitimate, and I really don't think that it's legitimate to dismiss such examples based on etymology, because most of the people who use these terms couldn't even spell etymology, much less tell you what the significance of it might be.
I don’t dismiss it, rather I say it’s more complex than what you acknowledge. And its greater complexity makes it a bad example to use in a discussion like this.

The ultimate arbiter on what a word means is how it is used in a language. However, etymology, while not defining present usage, yet can give clues as to how a term developed. Looking at the term “strike” we find a term with multiple meanings, and the etymology shows why there are so many meanings—because there were multiple terms that joined together into a messy homonym stew.

Most people don’t know the term “homonym” nor how to spell it, yet they have no problem recognizing which homonym is meant in standard usage. So, for example, most people have no problem recognizing the four homonyms “to”, “to”, “too”, and “two” and which meaning is meant in spoken usage, even though they don’t know the term that describes such usage.

This is getting off topic. It’s worth discussing as an example of how we need to be careful in discussions concerning Biblical Hebrew and Greek.

Karl W. Randolph.
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SteveMiller
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by SteveMiller »

Leonard,
Do Catholics acknowledge that the apostles James and John, the sons of Zebedee, were Jesus' 1st cousins (Matt 4:21; 27:56; Mk 15:40; Joh 19:25)? Yet they are never called the Lord's brothers. The title "James, the brother of the Lord" would be ambiguous as to which James was being referred to.
Sincerely yours,
Steve Miller
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Honesty is the best policy. - George Washington (1732-99)
I Beleive
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by I Beleive »

The aleph-tav is the sign of the messiah. In NT He is called Alpha-Omega. It is a direct object modifier in some cases indicating a covenant relationship with a person. See Aleph-Tav Scriptures Tanach.
Gregory M. Wilson, J.D.
S_Walch
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Re: The use of אָח in the Hebrew Bible

Post by S_Walch »

I Beleive wrote:The aleph-tav is the sign of the messiah.
This is theological eisegesis, rather than exegesis from the text.

It also doesn't help that there's variance in Hebrew manuscripts as to when and where את appears.

It should also be noted, that this topic is with regards to the Hebrew אח, made up of the Hebrew letters Aleph-Chet meaning "brother, sibling, fellow kinsman", and not את - the Aleph-Tav :)
Ste Walch
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