Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

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Danielkim
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Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by Danielkim »

יְחַיֵּ֖נוּ מִיֹּמָ֑יִם בַּיֹּום֙ הַשְּׁלִישִׁ֔י יְקִמֵ֖נוּ וְנִחְיֶ֥ה לְפָנָֽיו׃ ( Hosea 6:2)

After two days will he revive us: in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight.(KJV Hosea 6:2)

Hello. Everybody.

I am wondering in the hebrew text, if there is meaning "After" in it.

I checked concordance, and I am not sure why it is translated as "AFTER two Days".

I am simply try to figure out if "After Two Days" is correct translation.

please help me and thank you for your input.

Daniel Kim.

Bible student from VA, USA.
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

Danielkim,

Literally, it says "from two days". If you want to look up word by word translations with very good Hebrew-English dictionaries, you should use the site called Blue Letter Bible or the site called Biblehub.

http://www.blbclassic.org/
http://biblehub.com/

Kenneth Greifer
Kenneth Greifer
kwrandolph
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by kwrandolph »

Danielkim wrote:יְחַיֵּ֖נוּ מִיֹּמָ֑יִם בַּיֹּום֙ הַשְּׁלִישִׁ֔י יְקִמֵ֖נוּ וְנִחְיֶ֥ה לְפָנָֽיו׃ ( Hosea 6:2)

After two days will he revive us: in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight.(KJV Hosea 6:2)

Hello. Everybody.

I am wondering in the hebrew text, if there is meaning "After" in it.
I don’t know where the “two days” comes from. The phrase מימים is used for “days later” which could include many years Joshua 23:1, Judges 14:8 though used “from days to days” Exodus 13:10, Judges 11:40, 1 Samuel 1:3, etc.
Danielkim wrote:I checked concordance, and I am not sure why it is translated as "AFTER two Days".

I am simply try to figure out if "After Two Days" is correct translation.

please help me and thank you for your input.

Daniel Kim.

Bible student from VA, USA.
Now to make things more difficult, יקמנו can come from either נקם meaning that he’ll avenge us, or from קום which means he’ll raise us up. So we have two possible readings:

“And days later he’ll make us alive, on the third day he’ll avenge us that we may live before him.”

-- or --

“And days later he’ll make us alive, on the third day he’ll raise us up that we may live before him.”

Which better fits the context?

Karl W. Randolph.
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Kirk Lowery
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by Kirk Lowery »

מִיֹּמָ֑יִם is in the dual form. (Yes, Karl, we know your feelings about vocalization.) The vocalization suggests this is how the Massoretes understood the word. Anyway, translators followed them and so we get "two days".
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Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

I think Hosea 6:2 could also say "He will raise us more than the seas in the third day" because the water was gathered together into seas on the third day of creation which would probably have raised the seas up pretty high.

Of course, that opinion cannot be considered by most people today.

Kenneth Greifer
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S_Walch
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by S_Walch »

FWIW, the LXX has μετὰ δύο ἡμέρας ('after two days') as a translation for מ‍ימים, and ὑγιάσει ('he shall revive/make healthy') as a translation of יחי.

So the understanding of "He shall revive/make healthy [us] after two days" goes back at least pre-Masoretic times :)
Ste Walch
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by kwrandolph »

Kirk Lowery wrote:מִיֹּמָ֑יִם is in the dual form. (Yes, Karl, we know your feelings about vocalization.) The vocalization suggests this is how the Massoretes understood the word. Anyway, translators followed them and so we get "two days".
Yes, I know that. What I am really asking, is there any linguistic evidence for that reading from Biblical Hebrew. If this is a dual form, it is unique in Tanakh. That it’s unique, happax legomenon, doesn’t rule it out, see “into the unknown” בעלמה in Proverbs 30:19, but it does raise questions.
S_Walch wrote:FWIW, the LXX has μετὰ δύο ἡμέρας ('after two days') as a translation for מ‍ימים, and ὑγιάσει ('he shall revive/make healthy') as a translation of יחי.

So the understanding of "He shall revive/make healthy [us] after two days" goes back at least pre-Masoretic times :)
Good point. I should have checked that out.

I did check to see if there’s a DSS reading for it, and there isn’t.

There’s more than one possible reading, needs more thought.

Karl W. Randolph.
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by Kirk Lowery »

Karl,

I'm not sure if this is relevant to your question, but the dual form here is "in pause". The normal patach is lengthened to qamatz when a major accent (like the athnach here) falls on that syllable. There's no grammatical, but only phonological significance.
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Danielkim
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by Danielkim »

the reason I think this is important, Jesus used two different expressions.

"After Three Days I will be resurrected" = Cardinal Number (Mt 8:31) = the time length Jesus was in the tomb = Thursday, Friday, Saturday

"On the Third Day I will be resurrected" = Ordinal Number (mt 16:21) = From the view of Thursday High Sabbath, sunday was Third Day

High Sabbath = Abib 15th= 7th Day,

Friday = Abib 16th= 1st Day

Saturday = Abib 17th = 2nd day

Sunday = Third Day .

"It is finished" declared on Wednesday, Jesus is the Creator,so Wednesday has the meaning of 6th day.

this Abib 14th was 6th day of the week in the time Adam and Eve picked forbidden tree.


Hosea 6:2 " After Two days" = Cardinal number.

After Two days = 2nd coming = 2000 yrs = 2030 A.D

third Day = 3rd Coming= 8th Millenium = 3030 A.D

This is my current understanding.
S_Walch
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Re: Hosea 6:2 "After Two Days"

Post by S_Walch »

Whilst highly off topic (and the NT isn't really much discussed on this forum), a few notes:

* No such thing as a "High Sabbath". The Sabbath is *only* the Sabbath, which is always Friday sundown to Saturday sundown.
* The Messiah wasn't in the tomb for 3 days.
* Note that "after three days" only appears in Mark, and once in Matt. on the lips of the Pharisees. In Mark, it is always included when being handed over to the chief priests and the scribes is mentioned also (subtle clue).
* All eyewitnesses (yes, even John) state that the Messiah was crucified on παρασκευη, which is Greek for Friday. Even modern Greek today uses παρασκευη for Friday.

Finally: theological agenda really shouldn't be brought up in a discussion on how to translate a text. It will lead to eisegesis, rather than exegesis.
Ste Walch
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