Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

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kwrandolph
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by kwrandolph »

Kenneth Greifer wrote:Karl,

Do you at least say the verb in Isaiah 9:3 means "to break"?

Kenneth Greifer
What makes you think it’s a verb? And if a verb, does it not refer back to the nature of the yoke and staff mentioned earlier in the verse?

“As in the day of Midian” does it not refer to Judges 6 when Israel was in terror of the Midianites?

Sorry for not responding earlier.

Karl W. Randolph.
kwrandolph
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by kwrandolph »

Jemoh66 wrote:Karl and Ken,

Here's what Ross says in his introductory Grammar,
Qal Passive: grammarians have observed that some biblical verbs vocalized by the Masoretes as Pual or Hophal forms may actually be Qal passives because (1) no alteration in the basic meaning of the root occurs that accords with a true Pual or Hophal, (2) the forms look like Pual in the perfect and Hophal in the imperfect, (3) ל in לָקַח assimilates as it does only in the Qal, and (4) the participle does not have prefix מ
So actually the Qal passive theory is based on perceived weaknesses of the Masoretic pointing in those particular instances.

Ross gives two examples: Psalm 139:15 (Qal עָשָׂה, to do, make ) and Gen 12:15. (Qal לָקַח, to take)
In the case of לקח, how do we know if Ross (whoever he is) is correct? לקח is already an irregular verb, so why not also in Pual and Hophal? From the context, I read לקח in Genesis 12:15 as a Hophal “she was caused to be taken to Pharaoh’s house.”

According to Lisowski’s concordance, the Masoretes pointed five other examples of לקח with an assimilated lamed as Puals, in fact all the Yiqtols of לקח that are considered Puals—Genesis 18:4, Isaiah 49:24–5, Ezekiel 15:3 and Job 28:2.

Why not read עשה in Psalm 139:15 as an active?

I need to see unquestionable examples of Qal passives that can be recognized even in an unpointed text. Right now I find the theory weak, at best.

Karl W. Randolph.
kwrandolph
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by kwrandolph »

Kenneth Greifer wrote:Maybe it means G-d broke all of those things at the same time and that was why the nation was rejoicing in the verses before this.

Kenneth Greifer
Kenneth:

I read this chapter as in four sections: 1–2 the first, 3–4 the second, 5–6 the third section, then 7–20 brings up the last section. Why are they all in the same chapter?

It would help if we knew the meaning of סאן. The meaning found in the dictionaries makes no sense in the context.

Karl W. Randolph.
kwrandolph
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by kwrandolph »

Kenneth Greifer wrote:I have another idea about Exodus 4:25-26.…
Why not just take the simple meaning? It makes sense and saves you all this trouble.
Kenneth Greifer wrote:In Jeremiah 50:2, it could say that Babylon's idols were afraid or were broken using the verb form of the word "fear" חת. If idols can be afraid, then maybe legs can be afraid too, not literally, of course.

Kenneth Greifer
In Jeremiah 50:2, the word חת looks like a name or part of a name, חתו looks like it comes from the root that is listed as חתה meaning “to rake” used of raking a fire to make it burn better, and also as “to rake away” in the sense where in English we use “to sweep away” as in removing. This latter use is an example of where the art of understanding within a language differs from the art of translation.

Karl W. Randolph.
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

Could Isaiah 9:3 say "because with את the yoke of his burden and with את the rod of his back, the rod of the oppressor against him terrified (caused to be afraid) (hiphil) like the day of Midian" instead of "You broke like the day of Midian"? Can the geminate verb חתת in the hiphil be conjugated as החתת?

Kenneth Greifer
Kenneth Greifer
Jemoh66
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by Jemoh66 »

kwrandolph wrote:
Kenneth Greifer wrote:Maybe it means G-d broke all of those things at the same time and that was why the nation was rejoicing in the verses before this.

Kenneth Greifer
Kenneth:

I read this chapter as in four sections: 1–2 the first, 3–4 the second, 5–6 the third section, then 7–20 brings up the last section. Why are they all in the same chapter?

It would help if we knew the meaning of סאן. The meaning found in the dictionaries makes no sense in the context.

Karl W. Randolph.
1. In the Hebrew the chapter starts with v23 of the preceding chapter. The Lexham English Bible translators went with the Hebrew:
a ⌊But there will be no gloom for those who were in distress⌋.b
In former times he c treated the land of Zebulun and Naphtali with contempt, but in the future he will honor the way of the sea beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the nations.
2. vs 2-3 refers to those who were in distress ( Literally “Indeed there is no gloom for the one to whom there was anxiety for her”). Fascinating! Who is the "her?"
2 The people who walked in darkness have seen a great light;
light has shined on those who lived in a land of darkness.
3 You have made the nation numerous;
you have not d made the joy great.
They rejoice in your presence as with joy at the harvest,
as they rejoice when they divide plunder.
Note the not of verse 3. These translators went with the Kethib. I think the Qere makes more sense here.

3. Verses 4,5, and 6 all start with the connecting "For" or כי. Isaiah gives 3 reasons why they rejoice:
For you have shattered the yoke of its burden
and the stick of its shoulder,
the rod of its oppressor, on e the day of Midian.
5 For every boot ⌊that marches and shakes the earth⌋f
and garment rolled in blood
⌊will⌋g be for burning—fire fuel.
6 For a child has been born for us;
a son has been given to us.
These connecting ki's strongly discourage the dissecting of the passage into four sections. I view 1-7 as one section.
Side note: they felt the kaph is a copying error and was probably bet. I am not fond of emendations of the text, especially when it does not ameliorate the meaning of the text.
Jonathan E Mohler
Studying for a MA in Intercultural Studies
Baptist Bible Theological Seminary
Jemoh66
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by Jemoh66 »

kwrandolph wrote:
I need to see unquestionable examples of Qal passives that can be recognized even in an unpointed text. Right now I find the theory weak, at best.

Karl W. Randolph.
Here are some articles related to the Qal passive controversy with a quote from each:

http://www.rethinkinghell.com/2013/06/t ... er-issues/
Some scholars are reluctant to accept the existence of the passive Qal in the Hebrew Bible.

The presence of a passive Qal in biblical Hebrew is part of the heritage Israel received from those who spoke the language of Canaan (Isaiah 19:18). Williams, in his article on the passive Qal (1970, 44-45), has found passive Qal forms in the Tell el-Amarna letters, in the Ugaritic literature, and in several other West Semitic languages.
http://www.rethinkinghell.com/2013/06/w ... ched-fire/
This is why I said earlier that Blauser is conflating meaning and stem. He has assumed, erroneously, that if there is to be a verb with a passive meaning then it must be a verb in a characteristically passive stem, which is not the case at all. In short, he has grossly oversimplified, imagining that all verbs in the Qal must convey an active meaning, and presumably all verbs in all other stems are strictly limited to one kind of meaning. But are there any verbs in the Qal stem that convey a passive meaning, “to be Xed [by somebody / something]”?

In fact there are. Here are a few.

תָּמַם (tamam). This verb in its Qal form commonly means “to be finished,” “to be completed,” “to be consumed” and the like.

In his article on Arabic language and culture (2002, 74) J. Kaltner wrote, “There are a number of words in biblical Hebrew that suggest that at one time it, too, possessed a passive form of its basic, or qal, stem.”

With the development of Hebrew culture and language, the use of the passive Qal became less frequent. However, in his study of the passive Qal in the Hebrew Bible, Williams discovered “that more than fifty Hebrew roots preserve forms which may properly be classed as passive Qal” (41). He lists 52 words that preserve the passive Qal.
Jonathan E Mohler
Studying for a MA in Intercultural Studies
Baptist Bible Theological Seminary
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

There is an "et" before "the yoke of his burden" and before the rod of his shoulder, but no "et" before "the rod of the oppressor." Shouldn't there be an "et" before the "rod of the oppressor" if it says "because et the yoke of his burden and et the rod of his shoulder, the rod of the oppressor against him You broke like the day of Midian"?

Kenneth Greifer
Kenneth Greifer
kwrandolph
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by kwrandolph »

Jemoh66 wrote:
kwrandolph wrote:
I need to see unquestionable examples of Qal passives that can be recognized even in an unpointed text. Right now I find the theory weak, at best.

Karl W. Randolph.
Here are some articles related to the Qal passive controversy with a quote from each:

http://www.rethinkinghell.com/2013/06/t ... er-issues/
Problems I see with the first article:

In the example of Isaiah 66:24, this looks like a pointing error by the Masoretes, because in an unpointed text this could be a Niphal, Pual or Hophal as well as Qal or Piel. Therefore we rely on context to tell which binyan to apply to this form.

Depending on the Masoretic pointing always to be correct is leaning on a broken reed or carrying with a smoking flax.

When looking at verses as Proverbs 30:1, we just have to admit that we don’t know. Much of Biblical Hebrew was forgotten before the LXX was written, and much more since. Much of our work today is to try to rediscover what was originally meant.

The two translations of Daniel 9:25 are confusing because they’re only part of the verse.

But he is right in showing how presuppositions can lead to misunderstanding and mistranslation.

When Isaiah 19:18 was fulfilled, the “language of Canaan” was Aramaic. As far as I can tell, this verse was fulfilled after the Babylonian Exile, when the “language of Canaan”, i.e. the language spoken in the market and at the hearth was Aramaic, Hebrew already having achieved the same status among Jews as later medieval Latin in Europe.

As for כבה, most of the time it’s in the Yiqtol conjugation, look at my first paragraph above. Only twice is it in Qatal, and both times an unpointed text can be read as a Pual. As a result, this word is a non-example.

Just because some claim that the Qal passive is found in other languages, does not mean that the Qal passive is found in Hebrew. What I need are unmistakable examples in Hebrew that can be recognized from an unpointed text, and this gives none.
This second article is basically a rewording and expansion of the first, with the same mistakes. It is “… like a disastrous long mathematical equation: If you make one mistake at the start … and the rest of your work depends on that mistake, you are wasting your time.” to quote Dr. Peoples.
Jemoh66 wrote:In fact there are. Here are a few.

תָּמַם (tamam). This verb in its Qal form commonly means “to be finished,” “to be completed,” “to be consumed” and the like.
Well, you gave one, and as I have it now listed in my dictionary:
‎תמם to come to an end: to complete, used in the sense of coming to the end of, finishing a period of time Gn 47:18, Lv 25:29 and to come to the end of construction, to finish the making of something 1K 6:22, used of a person who is “complete” i.e. pure Ps 18:26 (25); sometimes used in the sense “there is no more” as all has been removed Gn 47:15, Dt 2:16 when in connection with a מ prefix on a following (pro)noun, has the idea of completely removing Jr 24:10, Ez 22:15
I have the Qal as an active, not passive.

As for lexical sources, I started out with Gesenius and Davidson. But as I got further into the text (after reading it over time and time again), I found myself questioning the glosses provided by Gesenius, so I started checking them against actual uses in Tenakh as listed in Lisowski’s hebrew concordance, and found that Gesenius’ definitions often didn’t match the uses as listed. Whenever I have checked newer dictionaries, like BDB and newer, as far as I can tell all ultimately based on Gesenius’ original effort, I have usually found most of the same faults that I first noticed in Gesenius.

My dictionary started as corrections in the margins of my copy of Gesenius, though now is a stand alone electronic file. It’s a one-man effort, with all the faults that accompany such a production.

Translation is a different art from understanding from within Biblical Hebrew, because English is a different language, where sometimes an active verb in Hebrew is best translated with a passive in English. This is one reason I don’t consider translations as evidence in these Hebrew discussions.

Thanks for the links to Dr. Glen Peoples, even though I ended up finding his blog unconvincing. This is a public response, you may show Dr. Peoples what I think of his arguments.

Karl W. Randolph.
Jemoh66
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Re: Exodus 4:25-26 new reading

Post by Jemoh66 »

Karl,
Problems I see with the first article:

In the example of Isaiah 66:24, this looks like a pointing error by the Masoretes, because in an unpointed text this could be a Niphal, Pual or Hophal as well as Qal or Piel. Therefore we rely on context to tell which binyan to apply to this form.
In my view, you are missing the trees for the forest. The idea that כבה in Isaiah 66:24 means to be extinguished is not a premise for a following argument. It's the conclusion of a well laid out argument for the existence of Qal passives to begin with. תממ is brought out as one example from a list of 52 in a prior.

None of the so called problems you have with the articles do anything to negate the force of the argument laid out by Peoples, i.e. the fact that some Qal stems have as their 'meaning' a passive sense. The fact is that context shows time and again that כבה in the Qal is passive, and only takes on an active meaning when manipulated by the piel and hiphil. While they had the hophal as an option, the Masoretes consistently point the verb in the qal. The only reason to point it repeatedly in the qal where the context demands a passive meaning shows that the Masoretes treated it as a Passive Qal, and thus the theory arises that somewhere in the remote past, passive qals were common, and at some point obsoletized by the niphal. The distance between the Masoretes and the time of the writing should have produced more hophals and Niphals of that verb. And in fact, hophals are quite rare in the MT pointing. This suggests that they either were transmitting oral knowledge of the ancient use of כבה, and/or they still used כבה as a passive in the qal in their own Tiberian idiom. Whatever the case, if we accept the distance between BH and Tiberian Hebrew, we should expect to find hophals and niphals in all these cases. And if hypothetically we came across the occasional Qal, we could postulate a copying error. But with hundreds of Qal pointings where the context shows a root passive meaning, this cannot be the case.
Jemoh66 wrote:
In fact there are. Here are a few.

תָּמַם (tamam). This verb in its Qal form commonly means “to be finished,” “to be completed,” “to be consumed” and the like.

Well, you gave one, and as I have it now listed in my dictionary:
No Peoples gave it as part of his argument to show that Blauser's argument failed by arguing in a circle.
‎תמם to come to an end: to complete, used in the sense of coming to the end of, finishing a period of time Gn 47:18, Lv 25:29 and to come to the end of construction, to finish the making of something 1K 6:22, used of a person who is “complete” i.e. pure Ps 18:26 (25); sometimes used in the sense “there is no more” as all has been removed Gn 47:15, Dt 2:16 when in connection with a מ prefix on a following (pro)noun, has the idea of completely removing Jr 24:10, Ez 22:15
I have the Qal as an active, not passive.
You sound like Blauser, assuming your conclusion in your premise. Here is a word whose Qal form expresses a stative/passive meaning at its simplest core meaning. The existence of a Qal passive is the best explanation for the data observed. Just science at work.
Just because some claim that the Qal passive is found in other languages, does not mean that the Qal passive is found in Hebrew.
The fact that qal passives are observed in Arabic, Ugaritic, and Canaanite is not brought in to force them on BH, but as corroborating evidence added to the actual internal evidence for the argument.
This second article is basically a rewording and expansion of the first, with the same mistakes.
No, the second article is actually the article referred to in the first article. It precedes it chronologically.
It is “… like a disastrous long mathematical equation: If you make one mistake at the start … and the rest of your work depends on that mistake, you are wasting your time.” to quote Dr. Peoples.
You've made this mistake before.
1. The reason this is true in Peoples' article is Blauser's argument fails for including his conclusion in his premises.
2. There's a difference between a deductive argument and an inductive argument. In a sound deductive argument if the premises are true it follows necessarily that the conclusion is true. Blauser's argument is a deductive argument whose two premises are shown to be false. In fact, he was false on a third level that Peoples didn't even address. I'll talk about that further down. Peoples is just addressing the invalidity of Blauser's argument. He is not making an argument for Qal passive. The acceptance of Qal passive in the work of respected scholars is brought to bear on their discussion for the interpretation of a verse. The argument for the Qal passive comes from greater Hebrew scholars than you me or Peoples.
3. The argument for the existence of Qal passives is an inductive argument. An inductive argument offers the best explanation for what is observed. While a deductive argument is either sound or invalid, Inductive arguments are judged on their strength, which is tied to their explanatory power being greater than a competing explanation. Inductive arguments do not rise and fall on tearing a premise down.
4. You often dismiss a write up because you gleefully find something early in the essay that you can invalidate, then declare the rest of the article as a waist of time to read. This does not speak well of your supposed scientific method. The only way to argue with an inductive argument is to postulate a better explanation for what is observed in the evidence.

This brings me back to your first argument. It is invalid.
1. there is no correlation between your conclusion and your premise. Your premise is that "because in an unpointed text this could be a Niphal, Pual or Hophal as well as Qal or Piel." Your conclusion is that the MT made a mistake. Just because these other Binyans are available does not entail a mistake on the part of the Masoretes. There is no "because A then B" here.
2. The next statement, 'Therefore we rely on context to tell which binyan to apply to this form." is built on two assumptions, that the Masoretes made a mistake, and that there is no Qal passive. So like Blauser you are including your conclusion in your premise, which is begging the question.

While your argument for a mistake in pointing is invalid, the postulation of a Qal passive offers a good explanation for the said pointing, not only of this verse, but of all the verbs pointed in the qal while the context calls for a passive meaning. You are doing with the Qal passive what others do with the Tense/Aspect/Mood issue. And I have said I agree with you on the modality of the yiqtol. You have argued that verbs are marked for mood, and you have done so inductively by postulating that this is the best explanation for what we find in the text. Others argue in circles because they assume the verbs are marked for tense.
Jonathan E Mohler
Studying for a MA in Intercultural Studies
Baptist Bible Theological Seminary
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