I’ve come across some arguments that are making a case for morning to morning day reckoning. Much of it depends on the phrase “the morrow” מִֽמָּחֳרָ֔ת as in Gen. 19:34, Num 33:3, and others…
Also “tomorrow”… מָחָ֑ר Ex. 16:23 and others.Gen 19:34 And it came to pass on the morrow, that the firstborn said unto the younger, Behold, I lay yesternight with my father: let us make him drink wine this night also; and go thou in, and lie with him, that we may preserve seed of our father.
Num 33:3 And they departed from Rameses in the first month, on the fifteenth day of the first month; on the morrow after the passover the children of Israel went out with an high hand in the sight of all the Egyptians.
After looking at all the instances of these and researching all that I can I’m wondering…
Are they really ironclad proof of a change in the scriptural day?
It looks to me that it could very well be a sort of relative term and not necessarily defining anything to do with an official Biblical day.
Also, as in the case of Gen. 19:34 above, the term אֶ֖מֶשׁ is also used referring to the previous night and is often translated “yesternight” which kind of/sort of strengthens this thought.
Thanks for your thoughts on this,
Richard Conaway