Isaiah 20:3

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Jemoh66
Posts: 307
Joined: Sat Sep 28, 2013 11:03 pm

Re: Isaiah 20:3

Post by Jemoh66 »

The MT reading is quite old. It goes back to Jonathan's Targum, and even back to the Hebrew behind the LXX.

TJBU (English): And the Lord said, Like as my servant Isaiah hath walked naked and barefoot three years for a sign and wonder upon Egypt and Cush:

LXX: καὶ εἶπεν κύριος ὃν τρόπον πεπόρευται Ησαιας ὁ παῖς μου γυμνὸς καὶ ἀνυπόδετος τρία ἔτη ἔσται σημεῖα καὶ τέρατα τοῖς Αἰγυπτίοις καὶ Αἰθίοψιν

But note
Brenton Septuagint Translation: And the Lord said, As my servant Esaias has walked naked and barefoot three years, there shall be three years for signs and wonders to the Egyptians and Ethiopians; 4for thus shall the king

I like Ken Penner's rendering of the LXX better:
And Lord said, As my servant Esaias has gone naked and barefoot for three years, there will be a sign and wonders for the Egyptians and Ethiopians, 4 and they will realize that in this same way the king of Assyrians will lead the captives of Egypt, and Ethiopians, youths and seniors, naked and barefoot, uncovered, the shame of Egypt.
Jonathan E Mohler
Studying for a MA in Intercultural Studies
Baptist Bible Theological Seminary
Kenneth Greifer
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Joined: Mon Feb 09, 2015 3:05 pm

Re: Isaiah 20:3

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

Kenneth Greifer wrote:Jonathan,

Above I listed quotes with numbers of days before the verb. Here are some quotes with numbers of years before the verb. Psalm 95:10, Joshua 5:6, 2 Kings 22:1, 1 Samuel 13:1, 2 Samuel 2:10, and 2 Samuel 5:4. There might be more. I stopped looking.
Besides these quotes about numbers of years, I found a few more that use "six years" and "three years" with the number of years before the verb. See Exodus 21:2, 23:10, Leviticus 25:3, and 1 Kings 15:2. The six for years is not like the six for days in the genitive construct as you mentioned. What grammatical explanation will you use for these quotes?
Kenneth Greifer
Kenneth Greifer
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Joined: Mon Feb 09, 2015 3:05 pm

Re: Isaiah 20:3

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

I can see how it makes sense to say that Isaiah walked 3 years naked and barefoot as a sign about Egypt and Ethiopia, but it also sounds ok that the three years is about Egypt and Ethiopia. I read that there were Egyptians and Ethiopians in Ashdod which was captured by Assyria (Isaiah 20:1), so maybe Isaiah is referring to past events in Isaiah 20:3-6. Like he walked naked and barefoot, three years a sign and wonder (sign) is (present tense) upon Egypt and Ethiopia meaning some of their people in Ashdod were already walking naked and barefoot to wherever Assyria took people into exile. This could explain the present tense, if it is about Egyptians and Ethiopians being in Ashdod.

I can see how both translations and explanations make sense.
Kenneth Greifer
Kenneth Greifer
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Joined: Mon Feb 09, 2015 3:05 pm

Re: Isaiah 20:3

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

If you think about it, Isaiah 20 says that G-d told Isaiah to undress and take off his shoes and then one line later, He says he walked naked and barefoot for three years, so three years passed in one line or he was not naked all of the time, otherwise, why would G-d tell him to undress?
Kenneth Greifer
kwrandolph
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Joined: Sun Sep 29, 2013 12:51 am

Re: Isaiah 20:3

Post by kwrandolph »

Kenneth Greifer wrote:I can see how it makes sense to say that Isaiah walked 3 years naked and barefoot as a sign about Egypt and Ethiopia, but it also sounds ok that the three years is about Egypt and Ethiopia. … Like he walked naked and barefoot, three years a sign and wonder (sign) is (present tense) upon Egypt and Ethiopia meaning some of their people in Ashdod were already walking naked and barefoot to wherever Assyria took people into exile. This could explain the present tense, if it is about Egyptians and Ethiopians being in Ashdod.
Kenneth, you should know by now that Biblical Hebrew doesn’t have tenses.

By definition, according to people at SIL, a tense is a conjugation of a verb to indicate when actions occur. But all the conjugations of Hebrew verbs can be used for past actions, present actions and future actions, therefore Biblical Hebrew has no tenses. If the when of an action is important, then Biblical Hebrew uses other words to indicate when.

In this verse, there’s no when indicated.
Kenneth Greifer wrote:I can see how both translations and explanations make sense.
It may make sense to you, but not to us.

We need to see actual examples that back up your claims, and so far all you’ve provided is speculation. Speculation isn’t evidence.

Karl W. Randolph.
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