Isa 44:19

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S_Walch
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Joined: Fri May 23, 2014 4:41 pm

Isa 44:19

Post by S_Walch »

Just looking at Isa 44:19 in the Great Isaiah Scroll (1QIsaa), and am just wondering how to understand ואוכלה in this following section:

...חציו שרפתי במו אש ואף אפיתי על גחליו לחם ואצלה בשר ואוכלה...

a) Should I consider it just one of the numerous über-plene spellings as seen in the rest of the scroll?
b) A cohortative: "I have roasted meat and I want to eat it"?.
c) A reference back to אש: "I have roasted meat and she has consumed it".
d) Any other option people can think of?
Ste Walch
kwrandolph
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Re: Isa 44:19

Post by kwrandolph »

Ste:

I read it as option a).

4QIsab has the same as the MT.

Karl W. Randolph.
S_Walch
Posts: 343
Joined: Fri May 23, 2014 4:41 pm

Re: Isa 44:19

Post by S_Walch »

Cheers Karl, I had been leaning towards that due to how 4QIsab had it as well.

The only thing against reading it as a) is that nowhere else in the Great Isaiah Scroll does it have אוכלה or אכלה except where a feminine noun is involved.
Ste Walch
S_Walch
Posts: 343
Joined: Fri May 23, 2014 4:41 pm

Re: Isa 44:19

Post by S_Walch »

aavichai wrote:can you check (and quote here) verse 16 in the scrolls?
Sure thing:

חציו שרף במו אש ועל וחציו בשר ויאכל ועל גחליו ישב ויחם ויואמר האח חמותי נגד אור
if it is the same as the Masoretic text?
As you can see, there's a few differences from the MT:

חֶצְיוֹ֙ שָׂרַ֣ף בְּמֹו־אֵ֔שׁ עַל־חֶצְיוֹ֙ בָּשָׂ֣ר יֹאכֵ֔ל יִצְלֶ֥ה צָלִ֖י וְיִשְׂבָּ֑ע אַף־יָחֹם֙ וְיֹאמַ֣ר הֶאָ֔ח חַמּוֹתִ֖י רָאִ֥יתִי אֽוּר
Why not seeing it as B?
"I have roasted meat and I want to eat it"

this verse is actually repeats verse 16
חֶצְיוֹ שָׂרַף בְּמוֹ-אֵשׁ עַל-חֶצְיוֹ בָּשָׂר יֹאכֵל יִצְלֶה צָלִי וְיִשְׂבָּע

this is what said about them

and in verse 19 there's a repeat of that by putting the same idea in their mouth, as a quote

if so then it is hard not to see verse 19 in the scroll ואכלה=Va'Okhla
One of the difficulties of the text of 1QISaa is determining whether we're dealing with actual divergences of meaning, or whether we're just looking at a plene spelling of a word. Unfortunately the scroll isn't consistent with its plene spellings, so as a general rule, one usually goes with something being a plene spelling, rather than an actual divergence.

As such, I wouldn't be able to argue much against someone else seeing at as b) over a) - it honestly could be either.
Ste Walch
S_Walch
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Joined: Fri May 23, 2014 4:41 pm

Re: Isa 44:19

Post by S_Walch »

aavichai wrote:ps. your A in your first post "the numerous über-plene spellings" can you explain please
As you'll be very familiar with the defective/plene spellings of words seen in the Masoretic Hebrew manuscripts, when we get to the DSS not only do we see the plene spelling of words used more frequently in the manuscripts compared to the Masoretic, but we also have a lot of even-fuller spellings of Hebrew words, especially when it comes to the suffixed pronouns (lots of -כמה and -המה compared to -כם and -הם - The Great Isaiah scroll also loves to do -כה as opposed to ).

As such, I've dubbed these even fuller plene spellings as über-plene spellings - über being a German loan word used in colloquial English to indicate excessiveness or exaggeration. The Great Isaiah is replete with these über-plene spellings - I really enjoy reading the scroll, as you get to fun places like Isaiah 37:29, where we have: ושאננכה עלה באוזני ושמתי חחי באפכה ומתגי בשפאותיכה והשיבותיכה בדרך אשר בתה בה. Look at all those über-plene spellings of words!

However as noted, these über-plene spellings don't help when one is trying to determine the reading of the manuscript - are we dealing with an alternative reading in Isaiah 44:19, or is the Great Isaiah scroll just demonstrating its penchant of using über-plene spellings, specially adding to words that aren't indicating the cohortative at all?
Ste Walch
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