Mark Lightman wrote:וְיַעֲקֹב אִישׁ תָּם
1. LXX: Ἰακὼβ δὲ ἄνθρωπος ἄπλαστος.
2. Graecus Venetus: ἰακῶβος δ' ἀνὴρ τέλειος.
3. Tanakh Ram: וְיַעֲקֹב הָיָה אִישׁ יָשָׁר
If you put a gun to my head, I say number 3.
The word תם comes from the root (not all nouns come from verbal roots, but this one does) תמם which has the basic meaning of completion, making perfect. But it has a wider semantic range in that a person who is completed, made perfect is one who is pure, innocent. It also has the idea that if a person does an injury or damage unintentionally בתמו that that is not the same as an intentional act.
So while #2 captures the main idea conveyed by the Hebrew, it misses the full semantic range of the Hebrew that includes the idea of innocence, that the perfected man is also an innocent man. I think the LXX reading misses the mark. While #3 captures the idea of innocence, the Hebrew of תם seems to indicate much more than just the moral aspect. So now it comes down to, which is closest?
Just my 2¢, and remember that my 2¢ could be wrong.
Karl W. Randolph.