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Re: Is this analysis of Isaiah 9:6 a legitimate one?

Posted: Tue Jan 01, 2019 4:05 pm
by talmid56
Returning for a moment to the question of whether "name" can be used with multiple names, it may be helpful to compare Isa. 8:1-3. There Isaiah is instructed to write on a scroll before witnesses מַהֵ֥ר שָׁלָ֖ל חָ֥שׁ בַּֽז, Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz (NIV 2011). So Isaiah makes love to his wife, "the prophetess", and they have a son. God instructs Isaiah to קְרָ֣א שְׁמ֔וֹ מַהֵ֥ר שָׁלָ֖ל חָ֥שׁ בַּֽז׃. The NIV footnote on 8:1 reads, "Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz means quick to the plunder, swift to the spoil".

Now this name has several components and is quite lengthy; it is allegedly the longest name in Scripture. Yet Isaiah has no problem using the singular שְׁמ֔וֹ, "name" to describe it. Not an exact parallel, I grant, to the "name" in 9:6. But, perhaps, the grammar point is worth considering.

Re: Is this analysis of Isaiah 9:6 a legitimate one?

Posted: Tue Jan 01, 2019 10:30 pm
by SteveMiller
In addition to what Dewayne shared, here is one place with 2 names, that uses "name" singular:
Gen 31:48b ‎ עַל־כֵּ֥ן קָרָֽא־שְׁמ֖וֹ גַּלְעֵֽד
49 וְהַמִּצְפָּה֙ אֲשֶׁ֣ר אָמַ֔ר יִ֥צֶף יְהוָ֖ה בֵּינִ֣י וּבֵינֶ֑ךָ כִּ֥י נִסָּתֵ֖ר אִ֥ישׁ מֵרֵעֵֽהוּ׃
Gen 31:48b Therefore was the name of it called Galeed,
49 -- and Mizpah; for he said, Let Jehovah watch between me and thee, when we shall be hidden one from another: