Question on 1 Sam 3:6

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Glenn Dean
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Joined: Tue May 26, 2020 6:28 pm

Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Glenn Dean »

Hi:

I got stuck on the first word in the verse, namely וַיֹּסֶף . It is Hiphil imperfect, but where did the hireq-yod go (i.e. I was expecting וַיֹּסִיף )

Thanxs!

Glenn
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Jason Hare
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Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Jason Hare »

Glenn Dean wrote:Hi:

I got stuck on the first word in the verse, namely וַיֹּסֶף . It is Hiphil imperfect, but where did the hireq-yod go (i.e. I was expecting וַיֹּסִיף )

Thanxs!

Glenn
When the accent shifts, the vowel shortens.

יָשִׂים > וַיָּ֫שֶׂם
יוֹסִיף > וַיּ֫וֹסֶף
יָקִים > וַיָּ֫קֶם

It's really common, and it's similar to how וּ û > ‏ָ o in other weak verbs.

יָקוּם > וַיָּ֫קָם (that is, vayyā́qom)
יָמוּת > וַיָּ֫מָת (that is, vayyā́moṯ)

It's part of how the vav-consecutive works.
Jason Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
יוֹדֵ֣עַ צַ֭דִּיק נֶ֣פֶשׁ בְּהֶמְתּ֑וֹ וְֽרַחֲמֵ֥י רְ֝שָׁעִ֗ים אַכְזָרִֽי׃
ספר משלי י״ב, י׳
Glenn Dean
Posts: 205
Joined: Tue May 26, 2020 6:28 pm

Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Glenn Dean »

thanxs Jason!! I didn't even notice the accent shifted to the previous syllable (so now it makes sense - thanxs for pointing that out)

Glenn
Glenn Dean
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Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Glenn Dean »

On the word, in verse 6, וַיָּקָם, that's a "qamets hatuf"? That is, the transliteration is "vay - yā - qom"

Glenn
ducky
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Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by ducky »

Yes.

Also, notice the same principle in the word וילך in the same verse.
Starts with a big vowel (Tsere), and ends with a small vowel (Segol).
(Just like in ויקם).
David Hunter
Glenn Dean
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Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Glenn Dean »

Thanxs Ducky for the confirmation!

I wonder if I'm "misunderstanding" the transliteration BibleHub gives for some of the words (https://biblehub.com/interlinear/1_samuel/3.htm).

They transliterate the word as "way - yā - qām" (I thought "ā" is used for qamets, "a" is used for pathach, "ō" is for holem, while "o" is used for qamets hatuf, so it seems their saying the final syllable has a qamets).

Similarly, for the word you just mentioned, וַיֵּלֶךְ , they transliterate as "way - yê - leḵ" (but I would transliterate as "vay - yē - leḵ" (I thought ê was used for the vowel letters tsere-yod or seghol-yod or tsere-hey or seghol-hey).

Glenn
ducky
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Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by ducky »

Hi Glenn

I don't know BibleHub (never used it) so I don't know their way for giving the signs to the vowels.

Maybe you can find a page on that site that clarifies their way.
David Hunter
Glenn Dean
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Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Glenn Dean »

that's a good idea Ducky - they've got to have a place on their site that explains how they transliterate (LOL - "all I've got to do" is find it)

Glenn
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Jason Hare
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Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Jason Hare »

It's certainly not ā in the last syllable of וַיָּקָם. If that's what that site says, it's wrong without doubt.
Jason Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
יוֹדֵ֣עַ צַ֭דִּיק נֶ֣פֶשׁ בְּהֶמְתּ֑וֹ וְֽרַחֲמֵ֥י רְ֝שָׁעִ֗ים אַכְזָרִֽי׃
ספר משלי י״ב, י׳
Glenn Dean
Posts: 205
Joined: Tue May 26, 2020 6:28 pm

Re: Question on 1 Sam 3:6

Post by Glenn Dean »

I was doing so well going from verse 2:32 to 3:5, but 3:6 tons of trouble.

On the final word שְׁכָב, I was expecting שְׁכֹב for the imperative 2ms, so why the qamets on the middle root consonant?

I was looking at the imperfect 2ms of this verb, and it too doesn't have a holem on the middle root consonant. This is a strong verb too!

I did notice the metheg to the left of the qamets (which "reinforces" that this is a qamets)

Glenn
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