1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

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Glenn Dean
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1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by Glenn Dean »

Hi:

Here's the verse:


[right]וְלָכֵ֥ן נִשְׁבַּ֖עְתִּי לְבֵ֣ית עֵלִ֑י אִֽם־יִתְכַּפֵּ֞ר עֲוֺ֧ן בֵּית־עֵלִ֛י בְּזֶ֥בַח וּבְמִנְחָ֖ה עַד־עוֹלָֽם[/right]

If I had to translate it would be something like

"and therefore I have sworn (to myself) to the house of Eli, if he will atone for the transgression of the house of Eli by sacrifice and by gift forever"

OK, so my translation doesn't really make sense (and it is clearly an incomplete sentence).

One translation seems to put the word "NOT" (due to אִם and uses the subject of "to atone" as being "transgression" to get the translation

"and therefore I have sworn (to myself) to the house of eli, the transgression of the house of Eli will NOT be atoned by sacrifice nor by gift forever"

How did one know to use the word אִם in such a way???

Glenn
ducky
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by ducky »

Hi Glenn,

the word אם (as "if") is part of a basic style of swearing.
In the "long-form" it is something like: "This bad thing will happen to me if I do (or not do) this thing.
(You're gonna see this in 3 verses while you keep reading).

Eventually, the prefix of the swearing style was removed, and the "short-form" was created that only says "if" - in the meaning of "Not".

(it could be also, that here, since the swearing is God, then the prefix is not written since there is no point for that "self-threat").
David Hunter
Glenn Dean
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by Glenn Dean »

Thanxs Ducky for the info! I think I understand,

Glenn
ducky
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by ducky »

Hi Glenn,
I don't know if my words were understandable enough.

read verse 17 and over there you can see the same "if" in the longer sentence.
David Hunter
Glenn Dean
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by Glenn Dean »

Let me see if I can paraphrase things, and let me know if I got it right.

First, let's look at V17: Eli says, basically, "IF you hide any of the Lord's words from me, THEN may He deal with you severely".

BUT this actually says another thing, namely, "if it should happen that Samuel does NOT hide any words from Eli, then the Lord should not punish Samuel."

So now let's go back to V14, the short version. The "long version" of V14 is "IF you do NOT rebuke your sons for the wickedness that they've been doing, THEN I swear that sacrifices and gifts will NOT atone for their wickedness". BUT this also says another thing, namely "IF you DO rebuke your sons for the wickedness that they've been doing, THEN I swear that sacrifices and gifts will atone for their wickedness.

Now in V14 we already know that Eli did NOT rebuke his sons for their wickedness, so we do not have to say "IF you do NOT rebuke your sons ..." (since we know Eli didn't rebuke his sons), so the short form is saying "I swear that sacrifices and gifts will אִם (= NOT) atone for their wickedness"

I feel a wee-bit "tongue-tied" right now LOL,

Glenn
ducky
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by ducky »

Hi Glenn,

Let's start from the beginning...

What is a swear? A swear is like a conditional curse, which the one that swears says that if his words are not fulfilled, then he put a curse on himself.
(or, a swear that is put on someone else, in his agreement, which says that if he doesn't do what he swears to do, then he would be cursed).

If we take as an example a very basic form of swear, it would be:
may I lose my eye-sight if I do this (or don't do this)
or: may I lose my life if...
and so on.

in verse 14 - it is God that gave that swear after he already made his decision.
the swear is that his decision to not accept repentance will not be changed...

and the swearing style is like "I am not God (or I do not exist) if there will be repentance for the home of Eli.

The first part of the swear is not written, but it is understood from the pattern of the swearing.

other cases when God "swears", it starts with חי אני (as I exist) -
or דברתי - which refers to his word (I hope I am not mistaken on that one, I'm writing from what I remember).

Anyway, the point here is that God put his name on the line when he says that there will be no repentance to the home of Eli.
and it is as he says that if there will be, then my name (as his-self, his word, his true-ness) does not worth a thing.
David Hunter
Glenn Dean
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by Glenn Dean »

Thanxs Ducky for the explanation, I think I get it (it's just a type of swear that seems awkward to me (but that's just me ha-ha), but it's also a type of swear that I've never heard ever before (I've heard all types of swears, but none that fit V14).

Thanxs again!

Glenn
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Andrew Chapman
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by Andrew Chapman »

See BDB, p. 50a: 'After an oath (expressed, or merely implied) אִם (the formula of imprecation being omitted) becomes an emphatic negative.'

If the iniquity of Eli were to be atoned for, then...

Perhaps it was something to do with the holiness of the high priest's office. If his sin were to be covered, then God's holiness would be called into question. So... then I would not be a holy God - ie as David Hunter said, then I would not be God. Uzzah and the ark come to mind.
Andrew Chapman
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Andrew Chapman
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by Andrew Chapman »

See also Mark 8:12b

ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ δοθήσεται τῇ γενεᾷ ταύτῃ σημεῖον.

.. if a sign shall be given to this generation...
Andrew Chapman
kwrandolph
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Re: 1 Sam 3:14 - question on the word אִם

Post by kwrandolph »

I looked up in my dictionary, “sometimes used as a negation, that something will not happen again 1S 3:14”.

It’s not shorthand for a longer statement.

Karl W. Randolph.
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