Re: Lamoh - what is the parsing of that word? (last word of Isaiah 53:8)
Posted: Fri Sep 23, 2022 12:37 am
Thanks , that's very informative.. I would like to just look at one of the examples under discussion for now..ducky wrote: 1. Job 22:2 הַלְאֵ֥ל יִסְכָּן־גָּ֑בֶר כִּֽי־יִסְכֹּ֖ן עָלֵ֣ימוֹ מַשְׂכִּֽיל
In this case, in my opinion, the עלימו is plural (and shouldn't be on the "naughty list").
It is to be compared with another verse in this chapter.
Job 22:21 הַסְכֶּן־נָ֣א עִמּ֣וֹ וּשְׁלָ֑ם בָּ֝הֶ֗ם
The בהם and the עלימו refer to the same thing.
(and once again, I don't see it forced at all).
Let's look at Job 22:2 and Job 22:21
Job 22:2 הַלְאֵל יִסְכָּן-גָּבֶר-- כִּי-יִסְכֹּן עָלֵימוֹ מַשְׂכִּיל.
"“Can a man be of benefit to God? Can even a wise person benefit him?" (NIV) {note- JPS 1917 and 1985 also has him}. So those three translations put Alaimoh עָלֵימוֹ as him/singular.
How can you put "them" there?
You compare to Job 22:21
Job 22:21 הַסְכֶּן-נָא עִמּוֹ וּשְׁלָם; בָּהֶם, תְּבוֹאַתְךָ טוֹבָה
“Now acquaint yourself with Him, and be at peace; Thereby good will come to you." NKJV
"Be close to Him and wholehearted; Good things will come to you thereby." JPS 1985
Well, the translations are interpreting it as singular..and a reference to God.
How are you interpreting it as "them", what does the verse even mean to you to say "them"?
Are you thinking that hebrew is using a plural of majesty pronoun (does hebrew even use plural of majesty pronouns?), to refer to God?
Or are you thinking it's "them" but it's something other than God?
Thanks