B-Hebrew: The Biblical Hebrew Forum

Hi:

I completely botched the translation for 2 Kings 3:3, which is

רַ֠ק בְּחַטֹּ֞אות יָרָבְעָ֧ם בֶּֽן־נְבָ֛ט אֲשֶׁר־הֶחֱטִ֥יא אֶת־יִשְׂרָאֵ֖ל דָּבֵ֑ק לֹא־סָ֖ר מִמֶּֽנָּה׃

This verse is somewhat weird in that it appears the main verb is דָּבֵ֑ק, which is after the long clause "in the sins of Jerobaum, son of Nebat, who caused Israel to sin"

My question is - how did you know the verse should be translated as "nevertheless, he held onto 'in the sins of Jerobaum, son of Nebat, who caused Israel to sin' " (i.e. to move the verb "he held onto" all the way forward, in front of a very long 'clause'). I don't know how to pose my question more succinctly or precisely (unfortunately)

Glenn

Glenn: the reason the verb is brought forward in English is because English grammar demands that the object comes after the verb. Oh yes, in poetry sometimes poets disregard proper grammar for emphasis, but prose should follow the grammar rules, which are subject, verb, object.

In Biblical Hebrew, the word order is fluid where what comes first is usually what the author wants to emphasize, which can be subject, verb, or object. In this verse, the author wanted to emphasize the object of the verb, hence it comes first.

Karl W. Randolph.