Haggai 1:2

[Chris Watts]

כֹּ֥ה אָמַ֛ר יְהוָ֥ה צְבָא֖וֹת לֵאמֹ֑ר הָעָ֤ם הַזֶּה֙ אָֽמְר֔וּ לֹ֥א עֶת־בֹּ֛א עֶת־בֵּ֥ית יְהוָ֖ה לְהִבָּנֽוֹת

Where it says : עֶת־בֵּ֥ית יְהוָ֖ה I would have expected a maquef to be between the two words 'house of the Lord' not linking the word 'time' and 'house'. Perhaps a better question would be why is there a maquef joining the word 'house' and 'time to make it one word? Or is this a pointless question in the frst place?

Secondly there is a masoretic footnote that is positioned between the words as follows :
( I have used an asterix): עֶת־בֹּ֛א * עֶת־בֵּ֥ית (I have searched in vain for references and literature on how to interpret these footnotes - oddly I have never been able to find anything, certainly not online). It is frustrating not knowing how to read them. So I ask kindly for anyone help here please.

Chris watts

[ducky]

These עת come as a construct state with Segol.
So there is a one-syllable word, which this syllable is close and with a small vowel.

**
As for the Masoretic Note.
Can you explain what you mean?

[Chris Watts]

These עת come as a construct state with Segol.
So there is a one-syllable word, which this syllable is close and with a small vowel.

**
As for the Masoretic Note.
Can you explain what you mean?

The note beneath this verse refers specifically to this עֶת־בֹּ֛א עֶת־בֵּ֥ית The note reads as follows:

צ”ל עַתָ בָא בית כן ת”ם This is typed exactly as you see it. Except I did not include the dagesh in the first Tav.

chris watts

[ducky]

Hi Chris,
This is not a Masoretic note. It seems to me that it is a book note to fix the text.

צ"ל is like saying "should be"
and it says here that it should be read as עתה (it is seen also in other places)
בא masculine (even though עת is feminine, but there are cases in masculine)
עת-בית

so it just comes to fix the text.

as for the rest, I am not sure
the כן is like saying "so is"
ת"מ is an initial of something which I can't think of.
I can guess that the ת is for תרגום (translation)
But I don't see what translation is with מ
(but maybe this is not the right direction)

Can you check in your book the section of the initial letter if there is something about ת"ם?

[Chris Watts]

Hi Chris,
This is not a Masoretic note. It seems to me that it is a book note to fix the text.

צ"ל is like saying "should be"
and it says here that it should be read as עתה (it is seen also in other places)
בא masculine (even though עת is feminine, but there are cases in masculine)
עת-בית

so it just comes to fix the text.

as for the rest, I am not sure
the כן is like saying "so is"
ת"מ is an initial of something which I can't think of.
I can guess that the ת is for תרגום (translation)
But I don't see what translation is with מ
(but maybe this is not the right direction)

Can you check in your book the section of the initial letter if there is something about ת"ם?

Hallo Ducky,

I am having trouble deciphering the first part of your explanation. The "..should be.." part. Why should this be read as "ATAH" the clause in question simply says: .....the time is not come the time of the Lord's house......where on earth does עתה fit into this.

I also do not understand : "..to fix the text..."

As for your last question, there is nothing extra other than what I typed from what I read.

My notes at the bottom of my bible align with the notes in the second rabbinic bible, but in this case I am perplexed since they do not appear in Haggai 1:2 in the link below, go to page 397 left column.
https://archive.org/details/The_Second_ ... 5/mode/1up

chris watts

[Glenn Dean]

BHS also has the note on עֶת¯בֹּא, which says "probably עַתָּ בָא", which confirms what Ducky was saying with עֶת ==> עַתָּה, but it's in construct so I think the final "hey" should go to a "taw", but since there is already a "taw", this explains why it's written as עַתָּ.

I also think the translation makes much more sense with the word "now": "... now it is not to come the time for the house of the Lord to be built" (compare that to "...time it is not to come the time for the house of the Lord to be built" )

Glenn

[ducky]

Thanks, Glenn.

As you said,
It is a suggestion of correction which the עת is read as עתה (check Eze. 23:43 for example, or Ps. 74:6)
plus addressing it in a masculine way (like עת הזמיר הגיע in Song.)

It is addressed in a masculine way since this correction suggestion also reads the בא as a masculine verb (and not באה as a feminine verb).

Chris,
Can you picture the page you see in your book, please?
I really want to see what you see (in the full context of the page, or even two pages).

[Glenn Dean]

(check Eze. 23:43 for example)

NICE find! I think that's "definitive proof" that עַתָּ ==> עַתָּה, so based on Haggai 1:2 and Ez 23:43 we can conclude עֶת ==> עַתָּה

Glenn

[ducky]

Hi Glenn,

I can see that you "love" this suggestion.
personally, I don't know if all these attempts in this case are just vain ones.

[Isaac Fried]

Haggai 1:2
כֹּה אָמַר יהוה צְבָאוֹת לֵאמֹר: הָעָם הַזֶּה אָמְרוּ, לֹא עֶת-בֹּא עֶת-בֵּית יהוה לְהִבָּנוֹת
KJV: "Thus speaketh the Lord of hosts, saying, This people say, The time is not come, the time that the Lord's house should be built"
The biblical text is fully clear as it stands, with the two maqafim helping to isolate -בֹּא עֶת- in the verse for a meaningful reading.

Isaac Fried, Boston University
www.hebrewetymology.com