https://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cd ... i/true#v16Isaiah 28:16 Therefore, so has the Lord God said: "Behold, I have laid as a foundation a stone in Zion, a fortress stone, a costly cornerstone, a foundation well founded; the believer shall not hasten.
טזלָכֵ֗ן כֹּ֚ה אָמַר֙ אֲדֹנָ֣י יֱהֹוִ֔ה הִנְנִ֛י יִסַּ֥ד בְּצִיּ֖וֹן אָ֑בֶן אֶ֣בֶן בֹּ֜חַן פִּנַּ֚ת יִקְרַת֙ מוּסָ֣ד מוּסָּ֔ד הַמַּֽאֲמִ֖ין לֹ֥א יָחִֽישׁ:
Behold, I have laid a foundation:
This is the past tense. Comp. (Esther 1:8) “For so had the king established (יִסַּד).” And so must it be interpreted: Behold, I am He Who has already laid [a stone in Zion. Already] a decree has been decreed before Me, and I have set up the King Messiah, who shall be in Zion as an אֶבֶן בּוֹחֵן, a fortress stone, an expression of a fortress and strength. Comp. (infra 32:14) “A tower and a fortress (וּבֹחֵן).” Comp. also (supra 23:13) “They erected its towers (בַּחוּנָיו).”
a foundation well founded: (מוּסַד מוּסָּד). The first one is voweled with a pattah because it is in the construct state, a foundation of a foundation, which is a solid foundation.
the believer shall not hasten: Whoever believes this word shall not hasten it. He shall not say, “If it is true, let it come quickly.”
The Greek OT has it as a future active indicative, ἐμβαλῶ.
The Greek NT uses the present active indicative of a different word, τίθημι (Romans 9:33 and 1 Peter 2:6).
Rashi seems very firm that it is past. Can anyone tell me what the Dead Sea Scrolls have?:
http://dss.collections.imj.org.il/isaiah
http://dssenglishbible.com/isaiah%2028.htm
Also, can you tell me the letters referenced in this footnote?:
[2] The scroll appears to have another verse between 28:17 and 28:18, but not enough letters are present to give a reading.
And if it is past, does that necessarily mean it was in the past? Does Hebrew sometimes write a past for a future?