B-Hebrew: The Biblical Hebrew Forum

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sat Oct 30, 2021 2:25 pm You can’t use Genesis 2 as a geological reference
Karl W. Randolph.

Yes I can.

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 5:59 pm

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sat Oct 30, 2021 2:25 pm You can’t use Genesis 2 as a geological reference
Karl W. Randolph.

Yes I can.

Well played.

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 5:59 pm

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sat Oct 30, 2021 2:25 pm You can’t use Genesis 2 as a geological reference
Karl W. Randolph.

Yes I can.

Not for post-flood places.

Maybe I should have said that at first.

Karl W. Randolph.

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 10:16 pm Not for post-flood places.

Are there pre- and post-flood localities? Do you have a list of places that existed before the Flood that are still around?

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 10:16 pm

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 5:59 pm

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sat Oct 30, 2021 2:25 pm You can’t use Genesis 2 as a geological reference
Karl W. Randolph.

Yes I can.

Not for post-flood places.

Maybe I should have said that at first.

Karl W. Randolph.

Euphrates? Pre flood name and Post flood name.

Consider also that the other three rivers are governed by Participle verbs - Moses was not speaking in past tense but used an ongoing action verb.

chris watts

Jason Hare wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 3:58 am

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 10:16 pm Not for post-flood places.

Are there pre- and post-flood localities? Do you have a list of places that existed before the Flood that are still around?

None that can be recognized. All have been either washed out or buried.

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 7:54 am

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 10:16 pm

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Sun Oct 31, 2021 5:59 pm

Yes I can.

Not for post-flood places.

Maybe I should have said that at first.

Karl W. Randolph.

Euphrates? Pre flood name and Post flood name.

They simply called the first river they came across by a name with which they were familiar from a river with the same name that existed before the flood. That is similar to groups of immigrants to the U.S. naming new towns and places with the same names as the places from where they had come.

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 7:54 am Consider also that the other three rivers are governed by Participle verbs - Moses was not speaking in past tense but used an ongoing action verb.

chris watts

Biblical Hebrew has no tenses, therefore you can’t talk about “past tense” concerning Biblical Hebrew.

Further, there’s literary evidence that Moses incorporated older documents in compiling Genesis. The literary evidence suggests that Adam himself wrote Genesis 2:5–5:2.

DSS and later Hebrew has tenses, which has persisted to today.

Karl W. Randolph.

Well we won't get into the tense argument, regardless of how a language forms its grammar, EVERY language spoken NEEDS to refer to what happened in the past, the Future and the Present - logical deduction methinks.

Trust you to crawl out of the quagmire by referring to a document written by Adam.

chris watts

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 1:10 pm Well we won't get into the tense argument, regardless of how a language forms its grammar, EVERY language spoken NEEDS to refer to what happened in the past, the Future and the Present - logical deduction methinks.

Tense is only one way to differentiate what happened in the past, present and future. There are other ways to make that distinction. Biblical Hebrew just happens to use other ways, other than tense, to make that differentiation.

Chris Watts wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 1:10 pm Trust you to crawl out of the quagmire by referring to a document written by Adam.

chris watts

And what do you mean by that? Is that a faith statement?

Karl W. Randolph.

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 12:58 pmBiblical Hebrew has no tenses, therefore you can’t talk about “past tense” concerning Biblical Hebrew.

Just a reminder that this is a claim that is in contention. The forms are not coded for tense, but the language itself has tense.

Jason Hare wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 4:12 pm

kwrandolph wrote: ↑Mon Nov 01, 2021 12:58 pmBiblical Hebrew has no tenses, therefore you can’t talk about “past tense” concerning Biblical Hebrew.

Just a reminder that this is a claim that is in contention. The forms are not coded for tense, but the language itself has tense.

“Tense” refers to different forms that code for time reference. Biblical Hebrew lacks such forms.

However, use of the language through contextual clues indicates time references, but those are not the same as “tense”.

Jason, I think we are on the same page on this question, just disagree on the terms to use.

Karl W. Randolph.