אֶ֥ת without a maqqef in Psalm 47.5(4)
Posted: Thu May 18, 2017 6:21 am
Psalm 47.5(4):
יִבְחַר־לָ֥נוּ אֶת־נַחֲלָתֵ֑נוּ אֶ֥ת גְּאֹ֨ון יַעֲקֹ֖ב אֲשֶׁר־אָהֵ֣ב סֶֽלָה׃
He chooses (/will choose etc) our inheritance - אֶ֥ת - the pride of Jacob, whom he loved.
According to Delitzsch here, אֶ֥ת with a segol and without a maqqef only appears three times in the scriptures. He says that the accent is 'conjunctive', which I think may mean that אֶ֥ת is serving to connect one thing with another.
I can't find אֶת in either Holladay or BDB (which is not to say of course that it is not there).
Holladay, אֵת, II: preposition meaning 'with' etc. 'With' connects one thing with another, so is this the type of meaning that אֶת has here? BDB at II similarly, also denoting proximity.
The other cases are Psalm 60.2(1):
בְּהַצֹּותֹ֨ו׀ אֶ֥ת אֲרַ֣ם נַהֲרַיִם֮ וְאֶת־אֲרַ֪ם צֹ֫ובָ֥ה וַיָּ֤שָׁב יֹואָ֗ב וַיַּ֣ךְ אֶת־אֱדֹ֣ום
when he fought with Aram etc.
and Proverbs 3.12:
כִּ֤י אֶ֥ת אֲשֶׁ֣ר יֶאֱהַ֣ב יְהוָ֣ה יֹוכִ֑יחַ וּ֝כְאָ֗ב אֶת־בֵּ֥ן יִרְצֶֽה׃
For whom the LORD loves etc
where אֶ֥ת doesn't have an obvious English equivalent. Does it perhaps serve to connect the LORD with the one whom He loves?
Coming back to Psalm 47.5, might אֶ֥ת be serving as a sort of marker of apposition - connecting נַחֲלָה with גָּאוֹן?
Thanks very much for your help with this,
Andrew Chapman
יִבְחַר־לָ֥נוּ אֶת־נַחֲלָתֵ֑נוּ אֶ֥ת גְּאֹ֨ון יַעֲקֹ֖ב אֲשֶׁר־אָהֵ֣ב סֶֽלָה׃
He chooses (/will choose etc) our inheritance - אֶ֥ת - the pride of Jacob, whom he loved.
According to Delitzsch here, אֶ֥ת with a segol and without a maqqef only appears three times in the scriptures. He says that the accent is 'conjunctive', which I think may mean that אֶ֥ת is serving to connect one thing with another.
I can't find אֶת in either Holladay or BDB (which is not to say of course that it is not there).
Holladay, אֵת, II: preposition meaning 'with' etc. 'With' connects one thing with another, so is this the type of meaning that אֶת has here? BDB at II similarly, also denoting proximity.
The other cases are Psalm 60.2(1):
בְּהַצֹּותֹ֨ו׀ אֶ֥ת אֲרַ֣ם נַהֲרַיִם֮ וְאֶת־אֲרַ֪ם צֹ֫ובָ֥ה וַיָּ֤שָׁב יֹואָ֗ב וַיַּ֣ךְ אֶת־אֱדֹ֣ום
when he fought with Aram etc.
and Proverbs 3.12:
כִּ֤י אֶ֥ת אֲשֶׁ֣ר יֶאֱהַ֣ב יְהוָ֣ה יֹוכִ֑יחַ וּ֝כְאָ֗ב אֶת־בֵּ֥ן יִרְצֶֽה׃
For whom the LORD loves etc
where אֶ֥ת doesn't have an obvious English equivalent. Does it perhaps serve to connect the LORD with the one whom He loves?
Coming back to Psalm 47.5, might אֶ֥ת be serving as a sort of marker of apposition - connecting נַחֲלָה with גָּאוֹן?
Thanks very much for your help with this,
Andrew Chapman