Psalm 67:8

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Kenneth Greifer
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Psalm 67:8

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

67:8יְבָרְכֵ֥נוּ אֱלֹהִ֑ים וְיִֽירְא֥וּ אֹ֝ת֗וֹ כָּל־אַפְסֵי־אָֽרֶץ׃
Would you translate this as "all of the ends of the earth" or "all ends of the earth" or "all ends of earth"? I think it sounds best as "all of the ends of the earth."
Kenneth Greifer
S_Walch
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by S_Walch »

I would prefer "all the ends of the earth."
Ste Walch
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

Ste,
Would you say that technically they are all right, but you just prefer "all the ends of the earth"?
Kenneth Greifer
S_Walch
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by S_Walch »

Well no, I wouldn't say that. Both אַפְסֵי and אָֽרֶץ are definite, so would require the definite article (unless there's a really good reason not to have them).

Of your proposals, the one you say you prefer would be the only other possibility, IMHO.
Ste Walch
kwrandolph
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by kwrandolph »

This is a good example where translation ≠ original. The Hebrew original lacks the definite article, and that works fine for Hebrew. But English demands to have the definite article for smooth reading. We’re dealing with differences in how the different languages are structured.

Karl W. Randolph.
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by Kenneth Greifer »

Karl,
I am not really interested in the words "the" in the translation, but mostly in the words "of." I am wondering if it should be translated as "all OF the ends of the earth" or "all ends of the earth" like most books I have seen.
Last edited by Kenneth Greifer on Tue Mar 17, 2020 10:06 am, edited 1 time in total.
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by S_Walch »

I think both are acceptable, but "all ends" just sounds better to me than "all of the ends." Whether it "should" be one or the other I don't think anyone could be dogmatic about.

Edit:
FWIW, the LXX has it as a nominative + genitive phrase, which would correspond exactly to "all the ends of the earth":

εὐλογήσαι ἡμᾶς ὁ θεός, καὶ φοβηθήτωσαν αὐτὸν πάντα τὰ πέρατα (=nominative) τῆς γῆς (=genitive).
Ste Walch
Schubert
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by Schubert »

S_Walch wrote:I think both are acceptable, but "all ends" just sounds better to me than "all of the ends."
I almost agree. My preference is "all the ends of the earth".

I see this strictly as a question of English style or idiom. For me, including "of" adds nothing to the meaning and feels clumsy English.
John McKinnon
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by S_Walch »

Schubert wrote:I almost agree. My preference is "all the ends of the earth".
That is mine, just so happens you managed to catch an unintended omission of mine there!

"All the ends of the earth" is the understanding, and best, translation of the Hebrew words, IMHO.
Ste Walch
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SteveMiller
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Re: Psalm 67:8

Post by SteveMiller »

Kenneth,
Do you see a difference in meaning between
"all the ends of the earth" and
"all of the ends of the earth"?

I don't see a difference.
Sincerely yours,
Steve Miller
Detroit
http://www.voiceInWilderness.info
Honesty is the best policy. - George Washington (1732-99)
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