67:8יְבָרְכֵ֥נוּ אֱלֹהִ֑ים וְיִֽירְא֥וּ אֹ֝ת֗וֹ כָּל־אַפְסֵי־אָֽרֶץ׃
Would you translate this as "all of the ends of the earth" or "all ends of the earth" or "all ends of earth"? I think it sounds best as "all of the ends of the earth."
Psalm 67:8
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Re: Psalm 67:8
Ste,
Would you say that technically they are all right, but you just prefer "all the ends of the earth"?
Would you say that technically they are all right, but you just prefer "all the ends of the earth"?
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Psalm 67:8
Well no, I wouldn't say that. Both אַפְסֵי and אָֽרֶץ are definite, so would require the definite article (unless there's a really good reason not to have them).
Of your proposals, the one you say you prefer would be the only other possibility, IMHO.
Of your proposals, the one you say you prefer would be the only other possibility, IMHO.
Ste Walch
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Re: Psalm 67:8
This is a good example where translation ≠ original. The Hebrew original lacks the definite article, and that works fine for Hebrew. But English demands to have the definite article for smooth reading. We’re dealing with differences in how the different languages are structured.
Karl W. Randolph.
Karl W. Randolph.
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Re: Psalm 67:8
Karl,
I am not really interested in the words "the" in the translation, but mostly in the words "of." I am wondering if it should be translated as "all OF the ends of the earth" or "all ends of the earth" like most books I have seen.
I am not really interested in the words "the" in the translation, but mostly in the words "of." I am wondering if it should be translated as "all OF the ends of the earth" or "all ends of the earth" like most books I have seen.
Last edited by Kenneth Greifer on Tue Mar 17, 2020 10:06 am, edited 1 time in total.
Kenneth Greifer
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Re: Psalm 67:8
I think both are acceptable, but "all ends" just sounds better to me than "all of the ends." Whether it "should" be one or the other I don't think anyone could be dogmatic about.
Edit:
FWIW, the LXX has it as a nominative + genitive phrase, which would correspond exactly to "all the ends of the earth":
εὐλογήσαι ἡμᾶς ὁ θεός, καὶ φοβηθήτωσαν αὐτὸν πάντα τὰ πέρατα (=nominative) τῆς γῆς (=genitive).
Edit:
FWIW, the LXX has it as a nominative + genitive phrase, which would correspond exactly to "all the ends of the earth":
εὐλογήσαι ἡμᾶς ὁ θεός, καὶ φοβηθήτωσαν αὐτὸν πάντα τὰ πέρατα (=nominative) τῆς γῆς (=genitive).
Ste Walch
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Re: Psalm 67:8
I almost agree. My preference is "all the ends of the earth".S_Walch wrote:I think both are acceptable, but "all ends" just sounds better to me than "all of the ends."
I see this strictly as a question of English style or idiom. For me, including "of" adds nothing to the meaning and feels clumsy English.
John McKinnon
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Re: Psalm 67:8
That is mine, just so happens you managed to catch an unintended omission of mine there!Schubert wrote:I almost agree. My preference is "all the ends of the earth".
"All the ends of the earth" is the understanding, and best, translation of the Hebrew words, IMHO.
Ste Walch
- SteveMiller
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Re: Psalm 67:8
Kenneth,
Do you see a difference in meaning between
"all the ends of the earth" and
"all of the ends of the earth"?
I don't see a difference.
Do you see a difference in meaning between
"all the ends of the earth" and
"all of the ends of the earth"?
I don't see a difference.
Sincerely yours,
Steve Miller
Detroit
http://www.voiceInWilderness.info
Honesty is the best policy. - George Washington (1732-99)
Steve Miller
Detroit
http://www.voiceInWilderness.info
Honesty is the best policy. - George Washington (1732-99)