Hebrew of the Hebrews

[Ruminator]

This question concerns whether or not a Greek phrase used in the NT is a Hebrew idiomatic usage. If this is off topic, please let me know and I'll delete the question.

The phrase is:

Philippians 3:5 I was circumcised on the eighth day, from the people of Israel and the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of Hebrews. I lived according to the law as a Pharisee.

Philippians 3:5 περιτομῇ ὀκταήμερος ἐκ γένους Ἰσραήλ φυλῆς Βενιαμίν Ἑβραῖος ἐξ Ἑβραίων κατὰ νόμον Φαρισαῖος

Is this a Hebrew idiomatic usage? Or should it be understood word by word?

English translations vary on how it is to be understood: https://biblehub.com/philippians/3-5.htm

[SteveMiller]

William,
There is no 'Hebrew of Hebrews' or 'Israelite of Israelites' in the OT.

In the OT, we do have the expressions: holy of holies, king of kings, Lord of Lords, God of Gods, heaven of heavens - and maybe others.
These expressions refer to the ultimate of that group.
All of these are in the NT except for God of Gods and heaven of heavens.

[Ruminator]

Thank you Steve. It appears that the preposition ἐξ makes this not a Hebraism: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/ ... ippians-35

[SteveMiller]

Ruminator, I agree. LXX and NT never translated any of the Hebrew superlatives with the preposition "ek" in between.