Stephen Hughes wrote:I have a number of further questions for these next few verses too;
Psalm 96:7 wrote:הָב֣וּ לַ֭יהוָה מִשְׁפְּח֣וֹת עַמִּ֑ים הָב֥וּ לַ֝יהוָ֗ה כָּב֥וֹד וָעֹֽז׃
- (1) Is the verb יהב Hebrew or Aramaic? Is it a conjectured form or an extant one?
It is Hebrew. Aramaic is only used in the Bible in Daniel 2:4b-7:28; Ezra 4:8-6:18; 7:12-26; Jer 10:11; & Gen 31:47 for the words spoken by Laban.
It exists in the Hebrew Bible only in the qal (simple) imperative.
The Aramaic equivalent is used more extensively in the Aramaic portions of Daniel and Ezra.
Stephen Hughes wrote:(2) What does it mean? The Aramaic dictionary says, "give", in what sense is that meant here?[/list]
From looking at the 34 Hebrew uses, it seems to mean "pay what is due" Zech 11:12; Gen 29:21. Lexicons pretty much just say, "give", "ascribe" or "come".
Stephen Hughes wrote:Psalm 96:8 wrote:הָב֣וּ לַ֭יהוָה כְּב֣וֹד שְׁמ֑וֹ שְׂאֽוּ־מִ֝נְחָ֗ה וּבֹ֥אוּ לְחַצְרוֹתָֽיו׃
- (3) Are the two words שְׂאֽוּ־מִ֝נְחָ֗ה joined with a dash because verb and object are actually together in this case? Is it because that is a rare occurance?
The same sentence almost is in 1 Chron 16:29, where there is no dash.
The verb & object combo are also used in Jdg 3:18; 2Sam 8:2, 6; 1Chr 18:2, 6 - so it is not rare.
I have not seen much purpose in the MT dashes.
Stephen Hughes wrote:Psalm 96:9 wrote:הִשְׁתַּחֲו֣וּ לַ֭יהוָה בְּהַדְרַת־קֹ֑דֶשׁ חִ֥ילוּ מִ֝פָּנָ֗יו כָּל־הָאָֽרֶץ׃
- (4) Does the מִן in מִפָּנָ֗יו mean "in the direction of"?
מִן does not mean that. I think here it means "due to" His presence.
(5) Does הָאָֽרֶץ exclusively refer to Israel in the Hebrew OT?[/list]
No. כָּל־הָאָֽרֶץ normally means the whole earth unless qualified.