Re: Help me translate 1 Kings 19:2
Posted: Tue Mar 09, 2021 7:47 pm
Hi Jonathan,
How can it be Jussive?
The Jussive form wouldn't come with a suffix "un".
Also, this "swearing phrase" comes also in other verses in a singular form with the word יעשה (as in your example later), but if it was Jussive, wouldn't it be יעש (the short form)?
We can understand that any type of saying to the "gods" is actually some sort of request (since it is not the person that gives "them" orders), but in this case, the style of this swearing is like a statement of truth that says "This is what is going to happen to me if..." - as if the swearing is so strong that it is a statement and not a wish.
(When the Imperative way is with a negative word, then the form is no longer imperative but Jussive).
And the second part is cut from the first part by the "swearing phrase"
And basically, before we call a form "jussive", shouldn't we expect it to come in the jussive form?
Are you talking about יעשון?Jemoh66 wrote: Tue Mar 09, 2021 2:23 pm I disagree, it’s most definitely a jussive. When I come upon a yiqtol form I always think jussive and/or subjunctive first, indicative second.
How can it be Jussive?
The Jussive form wouldn't come with a suffix "un".
Also, this "swearing phrase" comes also in other verses in a singular form with the word יעשה (as in your example later), but if it was Jussive, wouldn't it be יעש (the short form)?
We can understand that any type of saying to the "gods" is actually some sort of request (since it is not the person that gives "them" orders), but in this case, the style of this swearing is like a statement of truth that says "This is what is going to happen to me if..." - as if the swearing is so strong that it is a statement and not a wish.
Also here, when we translate it with the word "if" we do it in a negative way: "if not".Jemoh66 wrote: Tue Mar 09, 2021 2:23 pm As for the כי, I agree, it doesn’t actually mean if. The construct is the same when Ruth takes an oath before Naomi.
כה יעשה יהוה לי וכה יסיף כי המות יפריד ביני ובינך:.
In this case, I'm pretty sure that what you call an Imperative is a Jussive.Jemoh66 wrote: Tue Mar 09, 2021 2:23 pm Notice, in Ruth’s oath there is an original כי following the imperative phrase אַל־תִּפְגְּעִי־בִ֔י לְעָזְבֵ֖ךְ לָשׁ֣וּב מֵאַחֲרָ֑יִךְ.
כִּ֠י אֶל־אֲשֶׁ֨ר תֵּלְכִ֜י אֵלֵ֗ךְ וּבַאֲשֶׁ֤ר תָּלִ֙ינִי֙ אָלִ֔ין עַמֵּ֣ךְ עַמִּ֔י וֵאלֹהַ֖יִךְ אֱלֹהָֽי׃
(When the Imperative way is with a negative word, then the form is no longer imperative but Jussive).
I can't see what you're seeing. To me, it sounds like a statement.Jemoh66 wrote: Tue Mar 09, 2021 2:23 pm As far as I’m concerned one could read everything that follows that first כִּ֠י a subjunctive or jussive anticipating the oath formula כֹּה֩ יַעֲשֶׂ֨ה יְהוָ֥ה לִי֙ וְכֹ֣ה יֹסִ֔יף כִּ֣י הַמָּ֔וֶת יַפְרִ֖יד בֵּינִ֥י וּבֵינֵֽךְ.
And the second part is cut from the first part by the "swearing phrase"
And basically, before we call a form "jussive", shouldn't we expect it to come in the jussive form?
My English is not perfect, but isn't "for" fits better?