B-Hebrew: The Biblical Hebrew Forum

Jason Hare wrote: Tue Mar 29, 2022 2:07 pm Again, it’s two separate words. It isn’t a word being repeated. It says, “I am the Lord Yahweh.” The second word (יהוה\יַהְוֶה) is the personal name. The first word (אֲדֹנָי) is a title that Yahweh goes by. It’s common for Ezekiel to use this combination, whereas most of the Bible uses it as יַהְוֶה אֱלֹהִים “Yahweh God” in some form.

Sometimes, the word could be translated as "my Lord", if you ignore the vowels that were written down many years later. How do they know it is not "my Lord" in those quotes? It is possible that in Ezekiel, he usually uses it as "my Lord" also, but in 5 verses, it was used by mistake because it says they will know that "I am my Lord, the Lord." The phrase that I translate as "my Lord, the Lord" is used in many verses throughout the Hebrew Bible, but Ezekiel seems to use it a lot. Of course, it might not mean "my Lord", but "the Lord." I am just saying that it might be used that way. You can either guess that the word is used correctly in those 5 verses or that they are used incorrectly. I think you have to guess either way, unless there is some other way to know for sure. Maybe it is listed in Gesenius' grammar book. I guess I will have to try to look and see what he said. Edit: I looked.

I read that Daniel 9:9 and 9:15 say "to the Lord our God", so it can't be "to my Lord, our God." I guess that is a good example.
Daniel 9:9 דניאל
9:9 לַֽאדֹנָ֣י אֱלֹהֵ֔ינוּ הָרַחֲמִ֖ים וְהַסְּלִח֑וֹת כִּ֥י מָרַ֖דְנוּ בּֽוֹ׃

Jason,

Some consider אֲדֹנָי and אֱלֹהִים as marginal qere' that at some point in the chain of copying got put into the main text or perhaps was a very early way of representing the qere' because of the holiness of יהוה.

It's a plausible explanation, although there's no conclusive evidence. If they are not qere's, then I wonder why the additional title? What was the author's intent, since it is not done everywhere?