Re: Alphabet question please.
Posted: Fri Apr 01, 2022 9:54 am
Karl wrote:
Karl, surely you are aware that the temple was rebuilt after the return from Babylonian exile, as referred to in Haggai and Ezra? This is the Second Temple, and the Hebrew of these books (and the other post-exilic books such as Nehemiah, Esther, Malachi) is Second Temple Hebrew. Yes, the Hebrew of that period is somewhat different for various reasons from the Hebrew of books written before the exile. Everyone who reads the Tanakh in Hebrew recognizes this, even those who do not hold your view about post-exilic Hebrew not being spoken natively. This is Second Temple Hebrew, which you do in fact know if you read those parts of the OT. The book of Daniel contains some words borrowed from Greek and Persian, but that does not make its Hebrew not Hebrew. Is the Greek of the NT not Greek because it contains some borrowings from Hebrew, Aramaic, and Latin? To ask is to answer. One could claim (erroneously) that Jerome's Latin in the Vulgate is not Latin because it has borrowings from Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, or that the Latin of the Middle Ages is not Latin because it has the same kinds of borrowings. I don't buy such an argument.
One needs only to look at the history (briefly and superficially) of some other languages to see a problem with the idea that later Hebrew is not Hebrew if it is different in any way from earlier Hebrew. Take English, for instance. A look at a passage in Old English, from Beowulf, say, shows that English at that time looked very different from current English. It resembles German more than it does current English. And the English of Chaucer and other Middle English is very different from Old English, and fairly different from current English. Tremendous changes took place due to the Norman Conquest and sound changes, as well as vocabulary changes, in the language from the influence of French, the language of the conquerors, and an additional influx of Latin words and phrases, used in law and church documents. The grammar of English changed radically. Yet, no one can reasonably claim that Old English and Middle English are not English, any more than they could do this about Shakespeare and his contemporaries' English vs modern. The same could be said about modern Spanish vs Old Spanish (say, of Cervantes or of the Cantar del mio Cid). There are certainly differences, but one cannot say the old is not Spanish and the new is Spanish.
I have been both an English teacher and a Spanish teacher, so I use these examples. And, yes, Israeli Hebrew is still Hebrew, despite the differences between it and the language of the Tanakh.
Thank you. I’m not familiar with Second Temple and later Hebrew
Karl, surely you are aware that the temple was rebuilt after the return from Babylonian exile, as referred to in Haggai and Ezra? This is the Second Temple, and the Hebrew of these books (and the other post-exilic books such as Nehemiah, Esther, Malachi) is Second Temple Hebrew. Yes, the Hebrew of that period is somewhat different for various reasons from the Hebrew of books written before the exile. Everyone who reads the Tanakh in Hebrew recognizes this, even those who do not hold your view about post-exilic Hebrew not being spoken natively. This is Second Temple Hebrew, which you do in fact know if you read those parts of the OT. The book of Daniel contains some words borrowed from Greek and Persian, but that does not make its Hebrew not Hebrew. Is the Greek of the NT not Greek because it contains some borrowings from Hebrew, Aramaic, and Latin? To ask is to answer. One could claim (erroneously) that Jerome's Latin in the Vulgate is not Latin because it has borrowings from Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, or that the Latin of the Middle Ages is not Latin because it has the same kinds of borrowings. I don't buy such an argument.
One needs only to look at the history (briefly and superficially) of some other languages to see a problem with the idea that later Hebrew is not Hebrew if it is different in any way from earlier Hebrew. Take English, for instance. A look at a passage in Old English, from Beowulf, say, shows that English at that time looked very different from current English. It resembles German more than it does current English. And the English of Chaucer and other Middle English is very different from Old English, and fairly different from current English. Tremendous changes took place due to the Norman Conquest and sound changes, as well as vocabulary changes, in the language from the influence of French, the language of the conquerors, and an additional influx of Latin words and phrases, used in law and church documents. The grammar of English changed radically. Yet, no one can reasonably claim that Old English and Middle English are not English, any more than they could do this about Shakespeare and his contemporaries' English vs modern. The same could be said about modern Spanish vs Old Spanish (say, of Cervantes or of the Cantar del mio Cid). There are certainly differences, but one cannot say the old is not Spanish and the new is Spanish.
I have been both an English teacher and a Spanish teacher, so I use these examples. And, yes, Israeli Hebrew is still Hebrew, despite the differences between it and the language of the Tanakh.