Jonathan,
Yes, I received this post:
First, your friend is imposing a theological concept on the word GER. This is the same thing as trying to make Goy or Goyim carry the post biblical idea that the Goyim are non-Jews.
Secondly, his concept is convoluted. It makes no sense to call an Israelite a GER in his native land, no matter how long he may have sojourned abroad. This is nonsensical.
Thirdly, the passage in Exodus above makes no sense, if you plug in his concept of GER. When Naomi returned to her home in Bethlehem she was greeted with gladness by her kindred. No one need to be told that she should be treated like a native. On the other hand, Ruth was now the GER. Boaz treated her like a native. That's the spirit of the law.
I agree with you.
But at the risk of frustrating you, I'm trying to have something definitive to have linguistically, grammatically, or exegetically to bring forth to this person positing this nonsense.
I'll just type this out and you all can dismiss it as ignorant, or what have you. And believe me when I say that exegesis and attention to the text is one of my strong suits. So it's not that I don't see the weakness in this mans arguments (a man who has refused to bring his arguments here on three instances now). It's just that what I bring up from the text or the the definitions of the words is dismissed with certain assertions. For example:
You say that this person (not my friend at all) is imposing a theological concept onto the word GER. He would say that YOU are imposing a theological concept on the word GER. He would say that a person NOT born in Israel, who was born in a foreign land, but who is DESCENDED from Israel (ethnically) and CAME to Israel would be a GER. And he says that there's no way to prove from the Scriptures (in Exodus 12, for example - which is why I brought it up) that these strangers are not Israelites. And his assertion would nullify (theoretically) your statement here: "It makes no sense to call an Israelite a GER in his native land, no matter how long he may have sojourned abroad." He's claiming that these genealogical Israelites didn't sojourn anywhere, thus they weren't "native." They were born OUTSIDE of Israel in a foreign land.
Assertions like this are what brought me here in hopes to find some sort of definitive proof via linguistics, grammar, or history that his assertions are empty.
For example, an Israelite who was NOT born in Israel but who's family were Israelites, would he have been circumcised at birth? I would think so, but I don't know with any certainty. If he would have been circumcised then there's an immediate case for dismissing his claims.
Again, I see the holes in his arguments. I've walked through various texts with him.
One of the most powerful examples given in this thread has been Caleb. From what I can see, Caleb clearly was NOT an Israelite, yet he was a representative of the tribe of Judah and sent by Moses to spy out the promised land.
On another note, you say that the "Goyim" in the New Testament (post Biblical) text are actually Israelites. This is what I've been seeing for nearly a year as well. So, for example, in Romans 9-11, would you say that those "Goyim" are Israelites?
Dustin...