Galena wrote:that I’m very much a son of the Reformation
So be thankful to Erasmus, for without HIM, you would not be a son of the reformation. Was this God's doing or man's? If God's then He obviously gave the reformers the wrong translation and allowed them to use corrupt versions to set millions free!
And I thank other fallible men, most notably Luther. But that doesn’t mean that I treat their works as flawless, without error.
My greatest influence is to what the reformers pointed (which Erasmus did NOT) namely to Scripture as the ultimate authority. It is through that authority that people can point out mistakes.
Galena wrote:A second issue is that of authority—who or what is the ultimate authority? Is it Scripture, or is it man’s fallible reasoning?
You kept calling me out for using reasoning instead of FACTS based on EVIDENCE, this was my feeble attempt to use evidence.
But much of what you called “evidence” isn’t.
Galena wrote:KJV? Your Prejudice, leave it alone. Nothing wrong with it, your perspectives are based on how you interpret manuscripts, their history and language. And I read different English versions by the way, but KJV is for me the best translation, not perfect but more perfect than others in MY opinion, not for fluency but for faithfulness, and this has not come through any KJV'er club mentality but my OWN PERSONAL RESEARCH!
However, you’ll have to admit that the KJV contains literally thousands of errors. That previous sentence itself points to thousands of errors, namely the KJV translators used the term “sin” to “translate” the Greek αμαρτια and the Hebrew חטאה both of which mean “error” in English. I’ll grant the possibility that “trespass” has changed meaning since when the KJV was translated, but “iniquity” has no meaning in modern English: I understand one of them was used to “translate” פשע (rebellion) and the other עוה (pervert) and its noun עון (perversion, such as “twisting the truth”). Those are just some of the errors.
Galena wrote:I tried using humour to respond to a certain comments you made, instead of counter arguing I tried to make some laughter. Well that fell on its head.
Which is why I don’t use humor—too often it comes across as mockery, which offends rather than lightens up. I found that out through bitter experience when I offended people.
Galena wrote:I have tried to present a serious argument not to be CLOSED in thought but thatI feel strongly that the evidence for KAARU was not sufficient by any means. It is not a matter of being CLOSED, it is a matter that I am un-convinced by the argument FOR the KAARU.
Your arguments come across as clutching at straws, especially when you used altered images to try to make your point. And your referencing of explanations by others is relying on reason rather than evidence.
The evidence is:
1) most importantly, there are some manuscripts that have this reading, among them the only one from 2000 years ago.
2) all the ancient translations from Hebrew have it as a verb, not a noun.
3) people make mistakes, and that includes copyists, even careful copyists.
4) all the linguistic clues indicate that there should be a verb in that place.
5) context indicates that there should be a verb in that place.
Your evidence:
1) the Masoretes were very careful, and they have a noun.
2) the people who translated the KJV used the MT (this one appears to be your strongest argument).
Do you understand why your reasons are unconvincing?
Galena wrote:I never wanted to get into Faith, it has no place here I realize, but to answer your question unashamedly, yes absolutely I believe the word is infallible, the word of God without question.
The original manuscripts, or the copies made by fallible men?
Galena wrote:But I also believe that God uses ordinary men and women to do some of His work and that includes archeology and history and language. I t was because of my belief that I am looking for sufficient evidence to convince me that the masoretes changed a yod into a vav.
Don’t attribute to malice what can be the result of a simple mistake. Further, we have no evidence that the Masoretes did the mistake, it could have come earlier, before the Masoretes. The evidences we have from before the Masoretes indicates that the MT has a mistake in that place.
Galena wrote:I want to believe that pierced is correct, but as of yet I see Absolutely nothing that carries authority to weigh those scales down in favour. IF the NT had quoted that very verse we would never be having this conversation, I would be annoyed that the masoretes did that but I would still give them first priority in faithfulness because I would Understand WHY they did it. Oh and as a last note zachariah 12:10 = pierced, thrust through, the masoretes forgot to change this word heh? Maybe they should have altered a couple of consonants in Isaiah 53, that would do the trick heh?
Why do you insist on the definition of כאר as “pierce”? Is it because the KJV used that term? Linguistic evidence and evidences from some ancient translations indicate that the translators of the KJV made a mistake when they chose the word “pierced” when they translated כארו.
Galena wrote:Regards to you Karl
Chris
You started a thread questioning the accuracy of the Masoretes. While I admit that they were very careful, that doesn’t mean that they were infallible—they made mistakes. Further, they built on the mistakes of people who went before them. Yet, the evidence from the DSS is that the number of accumulated mistakes is quite low.
This discussion has narrowed its focus to one example, there are other verses to which we can reference, and that doesn’t include all the Masoretic points that are in error.
Yet it appears that your primary argument for the MT is that the translators of the KJV used the MT.
Karl W. Randolph.