Galena wrote:1. As Karl is to Strongs I am to LXX, I give it no authority at all.
The two are hardly the same thing in this regard.
Strong's was no Hebrew Scholar, and was in effect actually making a concordance for the KJV keyed to Hebrew/Greek words of his assign, with Strong's being 2500 years removed from BH.
The LXX on the other hand is a 2000+ year old translation a lot closer to the original writings, and even closer than the Masoretic vowel points. Plus as the Dead Sea Scrolls have shown, the LXX should not in any way, shape or form just be ignored outright. It contains mistakes, yes, but ignoring it is folly.
For the other references to Adam in the Old Testament see Psalm 82:7; Job 31:33.
In what way are these verses references to Adam the person? Could they not easily be simply "men", "a man" or "mankind" in general?
Psalm 82:7:
However, you will die like [a man/human beings/mortals], and you will fall like one of the princes.
Job 31:33
Have I concealed my transgressions like [a man/human beings], to hide my iniquity in my bosom,
Buhl, in Zeitschrift für Kirchliche Wissenschaft, Part 5, 1881, throws some light on the enigmatical phrase keAdam, by pointing out that Adam is employed in many places to express all the other races of mankind as opposed to Israel. Thus, he translates Jeremiah 32:20, “Thou who didst perform wonders in Israel, as well as in Adam.” Similarly Isaiah 43:4, on which Delitzsch remarks that those who do not belong to the chosen people are called Adam, because they are regarded as nothing but descendants of Adam. In this passage the emphatic position of the Hebrew pronoun hemmah lends significance to the contrasted term Adam. The meaning, therefore, is—the Israelites, who should be a chosen race, belong now, through their violation of the covenant, to the heathen: have become, in fact, Lo’Ammi. (Comp. Hosea 1:9.) The word “there” in the last clause may refer to some local sanctuary, notorious for idolatrous corruption. This is confirmed by the mention of localities in the next verse. We prefer, however, to understand it (with the Targum of Jonathan) as referring to the Holy Land.
This, essentially, backs up the LXX as taking
אדם to refer to a man/mankind (ανθρωπος can refer to mankind collectively, as well as a single man) in general, and not a direct reference to the person of Adam.