B-Hebrew: The Biblical Hebrew Forum

Jeremiah 22:7 has the word משחתים which is translated as "destroyers" and is considered to be hiphil present tense or present participle (whatever the difference is?), but I was wondering if it could be present participle hophal form that might mean "ones caused to destroy"? Usually, hiphil like this should have a letter yud added to it משחיתים. Is this common for that form of the hiphil form of the verb because I have seen other examples, but I don't know why it would be that way?

Kenneth Greifer
https://www.youtube.com/@kennethgreifer5123