Question on Gen 1:4

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ducky
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Re: Question on Gen 1:4

Post by ducky »

Hi Jason and Glenn

Jason, you are right about the "a" as the original sound, which later turned to "i".
But the question is why the וירא kept this sound and didn't follow the יראה יבנה and ויבן and the other forms.

And my guess is what I said before.

I finished my last comment about the process of ויבן=vayyiven which was based on vayyivn

Now if we try to do the same with וירא - it is different

We start with ויראה=vayyir'e and we drop the last vowel
and we get vayyir'

It is the same as "vayyivn" (with the combination of VN)
But in the form of vayyir' which we do see a "theoritical" combination of r+' - it is not reallt a practical combination.
And that is because the Aleph is not a strong consonant and became silent at the end of the word.

And so, practically there was no combination.
vayyir' sounded just like the Aleph wasn't there (as vayyir)

And so, there is no need for a vowel to break the combination of consonants because there was no real combination of consnants.

And with that, I think that the form of "vayyir" stayed "vayyar" - maybe because of the letter R that prefers a lower vowel.
David Hunter
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Jason Hare
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Re: Question on Gen 1:4

Post by Jason Hare »

Absolutely, David. Good points.
Jason Hare
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Nihil est peius iis, qui paulum aliquid ultra primas litteras
progressi falsam sibi scientiæ persusionem induerunt.

— Quintilian
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