majesty vs irregularity?

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Jemoh66
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Re: majesty vs irregularity?

Post by Jemoh66 »

In linguistics, a word of a spoken language can be defined as the smallest sequence of phonemes that can be uttered in isolation with objective or practical meaning.

Eat and eats are thus different words. The addition of the s differentiates that word’s meaning from the word eat.

What is two words in English, to eat is one word in French. manger. The infinitive manger is a different word from the conjugated verb mange(1 & 3 pers sg pr ind).
Jonathan E Mohler
Studying for a MA in Intercultural Studies
Baptist Bible Theological Seminary
ralph
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Re: majesty vs irregularity?

Post by ralph »

Jemoh66 wrote: Sun Feb 28, 2021 3:27 am In linguistics, a word of a spoken language can be defined as the smallest sequence of phonemes that can be uttered in isolation with objective or practical meaning.

Eat and eats are thus different words. The addition of the s differentiates that word’s meaning from the word eat.

What is two words in English, to eat is one word in French. manger. The infinitive manger is a different word from the conjugated verb mange(1 & 3 pers sg pr ind).
indeed, and if the mistaken guy was right with his definition of word, then it'd become quite bizarre, and a bigger puzzle than most would ever intend, to say a word has x number of letters!
Ralph Zak
ralph
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Re: majesty vs irregularity?

Post by ralph »

kwrandolph wrote: Sat Feb 27, 2021 9:35 pm What I’ve noticed is that some words, the plural refers to status or state—e.g. ילדים used for the state of being a youth, זקנים the state of being old, מגורים the state of being a sojourner, מותים the state of being dead, and so forth.

I hadn’t considered the nouns אדנים or אלהים, but are these examples where the plural is used not only to refer to the individual, but also to his status?

On another note, the name ירושלם was still pronounced in backwards Galilee as “Yerosoluma” as late as the first century, while it was pronounced as “Yerusalem” in Jerusalem itself as well as the diaspora. It wasn’t dual. I mention “backwards Galilee” as a place more likely to retain older pronunciations.

Karl W. Randolph.
that is really interesting, thanks
Ralph Zak
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Jason Hare
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Re: majesty vs irregularity?

Post by Jason Hare »

Jemoh66 wrote: Sun Feb 28, 2021 3:27 am In linguistics, a word of a spoken language can be defined as the smallest sequence of phonemes that can be uttered in isolation with objective or practical meaning.

Eat and eats are thus different words. The addition of the s differentiates that word’s meaning from the word eat.

What is two words in English, to eat is one word in French. manger. The infinitive manger is a different word from the conjugated verb mange(1 & 3 pers sg pr ind).
I eat. You eat. They eat. We eat.
He eats. She eats. It eats.

Each instance is a different word? Seriously?
Jason Hare
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Nihil est peius iis, qui paulum aliquid ultra primas litteras
progressi falsam sibi scientiæ persusionem induerunt.

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Jason Hare
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Re: majesty vs irregularity?

Post by Jason Hare »

If you tell someone to look up all instances of the word יֶ֫לֶד "child" in the Torah, who in their right mind would think that this excludes הַיֶּ֫לֶד "the child," יַלְדִּי "my child," יְלָדִים "children" and יְלָדֶ֫יהָ "her children"? Seriously? If you came back to your prof and said, "I didn't find the word יֶ֫לֶד even once in the Torah," you'd fail. It's true that the form יֶ֫לֶד doesn't appear in the Torah. However, the forms הַיֶּ֫לֶד‎, וְיֶ֫לֶד, הַיְלָדִים, and many others appear in the Torah. Who would only look for one specific form and not check the word as it appears in all of its inflections? I cannot take such a claim seriously.
Jason Hare
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www.thehebrewcafe.com
Nihil est peius iis, qui paulum aliquid ultra primas litteras
progressi falsam sibi scientiæ persusionem induerunt.

— Quintilian
ralph
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Re: majesty vs irregularity?

Post by ralph »

Jason Hare wrote: like "eat" is the same word as "eats" in English.
Jason Hare wrote: Sun Feb 28, 2021 2:15 pm I......y.
As I said. "for the sake of moving on from this discussion about what is a word, let's agree to disagree about that statement of yours? and I will bear in mind that when you speak of words it means something slightly different to when I do."

What you could do is go to an English forum and sort out what a word is.. It could take 20 or 30 posts back and forth before you understand(you clearly have various ideas leading you to try to debate it), (and if you really think that me and Jemoh66 are incorrect about what a word is, then i'm fine with joining with you, onto an English language forum and having the discussion about your statement and "what is a word", there). but that's far from the subject of the thread and even beyond the subject of hebrew / biblical hebrew.

If one were to agree on what it means in English, then one could consider if there is a difference in some way, or some cases between English and Hebrew. But we are not at that point(though nobody has suggested yet that there is a difference re that and we're not at that stage yet anyway, and if there were then I don't think it'd be relevant to the baalim baalav example anyway.
Ralph Zak
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