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https://bhebrew.biblicalhumanities.org/viewtopic.php?t=22702
My only faulty logic was assuming that you had grown in any sense since our last interaction.kwrandolph wrote: Mon Oct 31, 2022 9:39 pm In your presentation you have made two logical fallacies—you closed here with a straw man fallacy after begging the question.
LOL!Jason Hare wrote: Mon Oct 31, 2022 9:52 pmMy only faulty logic was assuming that you had grown in any sense since our last interaction.kwrandolph wrote: Mon Oct 31, 2022 9:39 pm In your presentation you have made two logical fallacies—you closed here with a straw man fallacy after begging the question.
It looks like it’s still open.
Jonathan,Jason Hare wrote: Mon Oct 31, 2022 1:19 pm Being a Ph.D. student, @Jonathan Beck might have better access to current resources. I use teaching grammars, since my hope with Hebrew is to bring people into knowledge of the language. As far as reference grammars go, you might look at A Biblical Hebrew Reference Grammar (2nd ed.) by Christo H.J. van der Merwe, Jacobus A. Naudé, and Jan H. Kroeze (Bloomsbury, 2017) and A Grammar of Biblical Hebrew by Paul Joüon and T. Muraoka (Roma: Pontificio Istituto Biblico, 2006). I think Jonathan (or someone else here) might be able to make reference to other resources that I don’t know about.
The Septuagint renders it with the aorist subjunctive middle χρήσωνται in a deliberative sense, “should they (people at large) use...?” The יעשה of this verse could be read either as qal 3cs “he will do” (יַעֲשֶׂה, as it is in the MT) or as niphal 3cs “it will be done” (יֵעָשֶׂה). If as the latter, we should understand the את as “with” rather than as the definite direct object marker (DDOM). Either is possible, if we disregard the pointing, and both would refer to an impersonal subject.Max S-R wrote: Tue Nov 15, 2022 1:46 am It felt silly to make a new thread about this little question, so I'm adding it here. Forgive me if that's not what I should do.
Gen. 34 ends with the sententious response of Jacob's sons:
וַיּאֹמְרוּ הַכְזוֹנָה יַעֲשֶׂה אֶת־אֲחוֹתֵנוּ
My question is whether this יַעֲשֶׂה has as its implied subject the prince Shechem, or whether the 3rd person sg. (masc.) can be used generally (for this is the way the Septuagint seems to translate), as in:
[Is a man] to deal with our sister as with a whore?
Many thanks in advance.
Max S-R