Why is there a maqqeph?
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Why is there a maqqeph?
Why is there a maqqeph between עַד and מָתַי in 1 Samuel 16:1? There are so many other places where a maqqeph is not used with עַד.
Daniel McCabe, ThM, DMin
- Jason Hare
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Re: Why is there a maqqeph?
It's normal for the מַקָּף maqqāp̄ to be used after עַד because the latter tends to be an enclitic (to use a term stressed in Greek study). It doesn't have an accent of its own but lends its accent to the next word. The same is true of words like אֶל "to toward," עַל "on, about," and אֶת ("with" or the definite direct object marker). Although they don't have to be followed by maqqāp̄, they tend to be (and to have their accents shifted to the word that follows).
Think of Greek ἄνθρωπός τις "a certain man," where τις shifts its accent to the word that precedes it.
In the case of something like עַד־הָעִיר, the preposition would be enclitic and have no accent of its own; while in the case of עַד הָעִיר, the preposition has its own accent. Look at the accentuation of the trope in various examples, and you will see what I mean.
Think of Greek ἄνθρωπός τις "a certain man," where τις shifts its accent to the word that precedes it.
In the case of something like עַד־הָעִיר, the preposition would be enclitic and have no accent of its own; while in the case of עַד הָעִיר, the preposition has its own accent. Look at the accentuation of the trope in various examples, and you will see what I mean.
Jason Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
יוֹדֵ֣עַ צַ֭דִּיק נֶ֣פֶשׁ בְּהֶמְתּ֑וֹ וְֽרַחֲמֵ֥י רְ֝שָׁעִ֗ים אַכְזָרִֽי׃
ספר משלי י״ב, י׳
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
יוֹדֵ֣עַ צַ֭דִּיק נֶ֣פֶשׁ בְּהֶמְתּ֑וֹ וְֽרַחֲמֵ֥י רְ֝שָׁעִ֗ים אַכְזָרִֽי׃
ספר משלי י״ב, י׳
- Kirk Lowery
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Re: Why is there a maqqeph?
Jason,
Do you know if the Masoretes had specific rules for determining when to add a maqqaf, or is it simply preserving the observed intonation of the Tiberian pronunciation?
Do you know if the Masoretes had specific rules for determining when to add a maqqaf, or is it simply preserving the observed intonation of the Tiberian pronunciation?
- Jason Hare
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Re: Why is there a maqqeph?
I don't see a pattern or hard and fast rules with regard to this. In my thinking, it is connected only to the creation of phrases in trope. Greek has specific rules about enclitics and how they transfer their accent, but Hebrew can have:Kirk Lowery wrote:Jason,
Do you know if the Masoretes had specific rules for determining when to add a maqqaf, or is it simply preserving the observed intonation of the Tiberian pronunciation?
יהו֫ה יִשְׁמָר־צֵאתְךָ֫ וּבוֹאֶ֫ךָ
Psalm 121:8
in which יִשְׁמֹ֫ר yišmṓr becomes enclitic as יִשְׁמָר־◌֫ yišmor-◌́ in this verse (in the phrase יִשְׁמָר־צֵאתְךָ֫). It is used both with an objective pronominal suffix (יִשְׁמָרְךָ֫ yišmorḵā́) and in the normal long form (יִשְׁמֹ֫ר yišmṓr) in the verse previous to this one.
I don't think we should expect any pattern except as it fits with the Masoretes' desire for phrase flow and word stress.
Jason Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
יוֹדֵ֣עַ צַ֭דִּיק נֶ֣פֶשׁ בְּהֶמְתּ֑וֹ וְֽרַחֲמֵ֥י רְ֝שָׁעִ֗ים אַכְזָרִֽי׃
ספר משלי י״ב, י׳
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
יוֹדֵ֣עַ צַ֭דִּיק נֶ֣פֶשׁ בְּהֶמְתּ֑וֹ וְֽרַחֲמֵ֥י רְ֝שָׁעִ֗ים אַכְזָרִֽי׃
ספר משלי י״ב, י׳
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